Practice 27 MCQs on MCQ: Cardiovascular System Pathology with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare fo...
Q1. Which foramen ovale closes in approximately 75% of individuals at birth?
Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation: Closes by fusion of septum primum and secundum. Persists in 25% of adults as PFO.
Q2. Anatomical closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs through which process?
Answer: Intimal proliferation and fibrosis
Explanation: Functional closure via vasoconstriction occurs first. Anatomical closure takes several weeks through intimal proliferation and fibrosis.
Q3. Failure of which structure to adequately cover the ostium secundum results in ostium secundum ASD?
Answer: Septum secundum
Explanation: Ostium secundum ASD occurs when the septum secundum does not enlarge sufficiently to cover the ostium secundum.
Q4. Which VSD type is specifically more common in Asian patients?
Answer: Doubly committed subarterial VSD
Explanation: Situated in the outlet septum, bordered by fibrous continuity of aortic and pulmonary valves.
Q5. The fundamental embryological defect in Tetralogy of Fallot is:
Answer: Anterior cephalad deviation of the outlet septum
Explanation: This single defect produces all four features of TOF — outlet VSD, pulmonary outflow obstruction, overriding aorta and RVH.
Q6. Which structure, when displaced apically, causes atrialization of the right ventricular inflow tract?
Answer: Septal leaflet of tricuspid valve
Explanation: This is Ebstein's anomaly. Apical displacement of the septal tricuspid leaflet causes the RV inflow to function as an atrial chamber.
Q7. In Transposition of Great Arteries, which embryological failure is directly responsible?
Answer: Resorption of subpulmonary instead of subaortic conus
Explanation: Normally the subaortic conus resorbs, moving the aorta posteriorly to connect with the LV. In TGA the wrong conus resorbs, keeping the aorta anterior and connected to the RV.
Q8. Which chromosomal abnormality is most specifically associated with coarctation of the aorta?
Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation: Turner syndrome is specifically associated with coarctation of aorta and bicuspid aortic valve. Trisomy 21 is associated with AV canal defects.
Q9. Persistent truncus arteriosus always occurs alongside which other defect?
Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation: The single great vessel overrides both ventricles, so a VSD is always present in persistent truncus arteriosus.
Q10. Sinus venosus ASD is specifically associated with anomalous drainage of pulmonary veins from which lung?
Answer: Right lung
Explanation: Right pulmonary veins drain anomalously into the SVC or right atrium due to the proximity of the sinus venosus defect to the SVC entry.
Q11. Which maternal teratogen is specifically associated with Ebstein's anomaly?
Answer: Lithium
Explanation: Maternal lithium use in first trimester is the specific teratogen classically associated with Ebstein's anomaly.
Q12. A restrictive VSD differs from a non-restrictive VSD in that it:
Answer: May close spontaneously during childhood
Explanation: Restrictive VSDs cause no significant haemodynamic derangement and may close spontaneously, unlike large non-restrictive VSDs which cause progressive pulmonary hypertension.
Q13. Which congenital defect results from failure of both subpulmonary AND subaortic conus to resorb?
Answer: Double outlet right ventricle
Explanation: Failure of either conus to resorb produces double outlet anomalies of the RV. TGA results from resorption of the wrong conus. TOF results from malalignment, not failure of resorption.
Q14. The ostium primum is created during atrial septation by growth of which structure toward the AV canal?
Answer: Septum primum downward from the roof
Explanation: The septum primum grows downward creating the ostium primum inferiorly. As it grows, perforations form superiorly creating the ostium secundum.
Q15. VSD accounts for what percentage of all congenital heart disease?
Answer: 25%
Explanation: VSD is the most common congenital heart defect overall, accounting for 25% of all CHD.
Q16. Which component of the ventricular septum lies directly beneath the aortic valve?
Answer: Membranous septum
Explanation: The small membranous septum lies just underneath the aortic valve. Membranous VSDs often have inlet, outlet or trabecular extension.
Q17. In which CHD does the right ventricle inflow tract function haemodynamically as an atrial chamber?
Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation: Apical displacement of the septal tricuspid leaflet causes atrialization of the RV inflow tract — it receives atrial pressure and contracts out of synchrony with the functional RV.
Q18. Which of the following is the correct sequence of atrial septal development?
Answer: Septum primum → ostium primum → ostium secundum → septum secundum
Explanation: Septum primum grows down creating ostium primum. Perforations coalesce into ostium secundum. Then septum secundum develops to the right, leaving the fossa ovalis.
Q19. Which of the following maternal infections is a recognised cause of congenital heart disease?
Answer: Rubella
Explanation: Maternal rubella is a recognised environmental cause of CHD, particularly PDA and pulmonary stenosis. It is specifically listed among the environmental teratogenic causes of CHD.
Q20. In Tetralogy of Fallot, which level is the dominant site of right ventricular outflow obstruction?
Answer: Subvalvular (infundibular)
Explanation: The dominant obstruction in TOF is at the subvalvular/infundibular level due to hypertrophied infundibular myocardium from the malaligned outlet septum — not at the valve itself.
Q21. Coarctation of the aorta occurs most commonly at which location?
Answer: Juxtaductal — at the ductus arteriosus insertion
Explanation: Narrowing occurs just distal to the left subclavian artery at the site of ductus arteriosus insertion.
Q22. Which radiological finding is specifically associated with coarctation of the aorta?
Answer: Rib notching
Explanation: Caused by dilated intercostal collateral vessels eroding the inferior rib margins, developing to bypass the coarctation.
Q23. A patient with an untreated large VSD develops reversed cyanosis. Which term describes this end-stage complication?
Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation: Chronic L→R shunting → pulmonary hypertension → pulmonary pressure exceeds systemic → shunt reverses to R→L → cyanosis. This is irreversible.
Q24. Patent foramen ovale in adults is specifically associated with which cerebrovascular complication?
Answer: Paradoxical embolism causing cryptogenic stroke
Explanation: Venous thrombus crosses from right to left atrium through the PFO entering systemic circulation, causing stroke without an obvious arterial source.
Q25. Ostium primum ASD is associated with a cleft in which specific valve leaflet?
Answer: Anterior mitral valve leaflet
Explanation: Both the ostium primum ASD and the cleft mitral leaflet result from the same endocardial cushion maldevelopment. Commonly seen in Down syndrome.
Q26. Which congenital heart defect is characterised by absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle?
Answer: Tricuspid atresia
Explanation: There is no tricuspid valve orifice connecting RA to RV. Survival depends on an ASD for right-sided drainage and a VSD or PDA for pulmonary blood flow.
Q27. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is more common in which sex?
Answer: Males
Explanation: Hypoplastic left heart is among the CHDs more common in males, alongside aortic stenosis, coarctation, pulmonary atresia, tricuspid atresia and TGA.