Medical Bacteriology and Entomology Exam 2020/2021 – 39 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

39 Year 2: Parasitology exam questions on Medical Bacteriology and Entomology Exam 2020/2021 for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and writ

This MCQ set contains 39 questions on Medical Bacteriology and Entomology Exam 2020/2021 in the Year 2: Parasitology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: Which of the following is the odd one out in terms of its mode of transmission? A) Vibrio cholerae

  1. A. Vibrio cholerae
  2. B. Entamoeba histolytica
  3. C. Rotavirus
  4. D. Thelazia species
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: D – Thelazia species

Vibrio cholerae , Entamoeba histolytica , and Rotavirus are all transmitted through the fecal-oral route (contaminated water/food). Thelazia species (eyeworms) are transmitted by flies that feed on lacrimal secretions, making it the odd one out.

Q2: Which one of the following is larviparous? A) Phlebotomus species

  1. A. Phlebotomus species
  2. B. Lutzomyia species
  3. C. Triatomine bugs
  4. D. Glossina species
  5. E. Dermacentor species

Correct answer: D – Glossina species

Larviparous insects give birth to live larvae rather than laying eggs. Tsetse flies ( Glossina species) are larviparous, producing one larva at a time that pupates immediately after birth.

Q3: Argasid ticks have: A) One host

  1. A. One host
  2. B. Two hosts
  3. C. Three hosts
  4. D. Four hosts
  5. E. Multiple hosts

Correct answer: E – Multiple hosts

Argasid (soft) ticks are multi-host ticks that can feed on different hosts throughout their life cycle and can take multiple blood meals at each life stage.

Q4: Ixodid ticks have how many nymphal stages? A) One

  1. A. One
  2. B. Two
  3. C. Three
  4. D. Four
  5. E. Multiple

Correct answer: A – One

Ixodid (hard) ticks have a single nymphal stage in their life cycle: egg → larva → nymph → adult.

Q5: Traps for Aedes mosquitoes are composed of: A) Black and white colors

  1. A. Black and white colors
  2. B. Black and blue colors
  3. C. White and blue colors
  4. D. White only
  5. E. Black only

Correct answer: A – Black and white colors

Aedes mosquitoes are attracted to contrasting black and white patterns. Ovitrap designs often use black containers with white interiors or black and white striped patterns.

Q6: Traps for Glossina species are composed of: A) Black and white colors

  1. A. Black and white colors
  2. B. Black and blue colors
  3. C. White and blue colors
  4. D. Blue only
  5. E. Black only

Correct answer: B – Black and blue colors

Tsetse flies ( Glossina species) are attracted to blue and black colors. Standard tsetse traps use blue cloth with black panels to attract the flies effectively.

Q7: Blackwater fever is due to presence of which species in the environment? A) Simulium species

  1. A. Simulium species
  2. B. Anopheles species
  3. C. Culicoides species
  4. D. Lutzomyia species
  5. E. Musca species

Correct answer: B – Anopheles species

Blackwater fever is a severe complication of falciparum malaria characterized by massive hemolysis and dark urine. It's associated with Plasmodium falciparum infection transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes.

Q8: Hepatitis B virus has been associated with: A) Cimex species

  1. A. Cimex species
  2. B. Xenopsylla species
  3. C. Pthirus species
  4. D. Tabanids species
  5. E. Glossina species

Correct answer: A – Cimex species

While not definitively proven, bed bugs ( Cimex species) have been investigated as potential mechanical vectors for Hepatitis B virus, though human-to-human transmission remains the primary route.

Q9: Snails are both first and second intermediate hosts of: A) Echinostoma ilocanum

  1. A. Echinostoma ilocanum
  2. B. Fasciola hepatica
  3. C. Fasciolopsis buski
  4. D. Hymenolepis nana
  5. E. Paragonimus westermanii

Correct answer: A – Echinostoma ilocanum

Echinostoma ilocanum uses snails as both first and second intermediate hosts in its complex life cycle, unlike other flukes that use different intermediate hosts.

Q10: How can millipedes cause medical problems? A) Stinging

  1. A. Stinging
  2. B. Spraying defensive secretions
  3. C. Transmitting viruses
  4. D. Laying eggs under skin
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: B – Spraying defensive secretions

Millipedes defend themselves by secreting toxic chemicals (hydrogen cyanide, quinones) that can cause skin irritation, burns, and eye damage in humans.

Q11: Holometabolous insects have: A) 2 life stages

  1. A. 2 life stages
  2. B. 3 life stages
  3. C. 4 life stages
  4. D. 1 life stage
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: C – 4 life stages

Holometabolous insects undergo complete metamorphosis with four distinct stages: egg, larva, pupa, and adult. Examples include flies, beetles, and butterflies.

Q12: Rift Valley fever is mainly transmitted by: A) Culex species

  1. A. Culex species
  2. B. Aedes species
  3. C. Anopheles species
  4. D. Toxorhynchites species
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: B – Aedes species

Rift Valley fever virus is primarily transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes mcintoshi and Aedes ochraceus in flood-water breeding sites.

Q13: Autogenous insects: A) Lay eggs without mating

  1. A. Lay eggs without mating
  2. B. Mate but do not lay eggs
  3. C. Are blood seekers
  4. D. Are sugar feeders
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: A – Lay eggs without mating

Autogenous insects can develop their first batch of eggs without taking a blood meal, using nutrient reserves from their larval stage. This is different from anautogenous insects that require blood meals.

Q14: Parthenogenesis is a type of: A) Asexual reproduction in which offspring develops from unfertilized egg

  1. A. Asexual reproduction in which offspring develops from unfertilized egg
  2. B. Sexual reproduction in which offspring develops from fertilized egg
  3. C. Asexual reproduction in which offspring develops from fertilized egg
  4. D. Sexual reproduction in which offspring develops from unfertilized egg
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: A – Asexual reproduction in which offspring develops from unfertilized egg

Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual reproduction where offspring develop from unfertilized eggs, essentially creating genetic clones of the parent.

Q15: Which insects are included in order Blattaria? A) Cockroaches

  1. A. Cockroaches
  2. B. Lice
  3. C. True flies
  4. D. Beetles
  5. E. All of the above

Correct answer: A – Cockroaches

Order Blattaria (now called Blattodea) includes cockroaches and termites. Lice belong to Phthiraptera, flies to Diptera, and beetles to Coleoptera.

Q16: The best mode of malaria control is: A) Elimination of insect eggs

  1. A. Elimination of insect eggs
  2. B. Bed net use
  3. C. Prompt treatment
  4. D. Integrated vector management
  5. E. All of the above

Correct answer: D – Integrated vector management

Integrated vector management combines multiple control strategies (bed nets, treatment, environmental management, etc.) and is considered the most effective approach for sustainable malaria control.

Q17: A 70-year-old man with diverticulosis experiences sudden severe left lower quadrant pain and fever. Surgery reveals a ruptured diverticulum with an abscess. The most likely bacteria to be found in the abscess are: A) Mixed normal gastrointestinal flora

  1. A. Mixed normal gastrointestinal flora
  2. B. Bacteroides fragilis alone
  3. C. Escherichia coli alone
  4. D. Clostridium perfringens alone
  5. E. Enterococcus species alone

Correct answer: A – Mixed normal gastrointestinal flora

Diverticular abscesses typically contain mixed anaerobic and aerobic bacteria from normal colonic flora, including Bacteroides , E. coli , Enterococcus , and other enteric bacteria.

Q18: Antimicrobial therapy can allow proliferation of resistant colonic bacteria. Which species can proliferate and produce a toxin causing diarrhea? A) Enterococcus species

  1. A. Enterococcus species
  2. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
  3. C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  4. D. Clostridium difficile
  5. E. Bacteroides fragilis

Correct answer: D – Clostridium difficile

C. difficile is relatively resistant to many antibiotics and can overgrow when normal flora is suppressed. It produces toxins A and B that cause antibiotic-associated colitis.

Q19: Which microorganism can be part of normal vaginal flora and cause meningitis in newborns? A) Candida albicans

  1. A. Candida albicans
  2. B. Corynebacterium species
  3. C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
  4. D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
  5. E. Group B streptococci

Correct answer: E – Group B streptococci

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Strep) is normal vaginal flora in ~25% of women but can cause serious infections in newborns, including meningitis, pneumonia, and sepsis.

Q20: Dental plaque and periodontal disease represent what type of physiological process? A) Biofilm formation

  1. A. Biofilm formation
  2. B. Normal aging
  3. C. Abnormal digestion
  4. D. Exaggerated immune response
  5. E. Chewing trauma

Correct answer: A – Biofilm formation

Dental plaque is a classic example of biofilm formation where bacteria adhere to tooth surfaces and produce extracellular matrix, leading to periodontal disease.

Q21: Which microorganism is closely associated with dental caries? A) Candida albicans

  1. A. Candida albicans
  2. B. Streptococcus mutans
  3. C. Prevotella melaninogenica
  4. D. Neisseria subflava
  5. E. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Correct answer: B – Streptococcus mutans

S. mutans is the primary causative agent of dental caries. It produces acids from sugar metabolism that demineralize tooth enamel and produces sticky glucans that help it adhere to teeth.

Q22: Streptococcus pneumoniae can be normal flora in 5-40% of people. At what anatomic site? A) Conjunctiva

  1. A. Conjunctiva
  2. B. Nasopharynx
  3. C. Colon
  4. D. Urethra
  5. E. Vagina

Correct answer: B – Nasopharynx

S. pneumoniae commonly colonizes the nasopharynx asymptomatically. Colonization rates are highest in children and can lead to invasive disease under certain conditions.

Q23: Resident flora is commonly found in the: A) Liver

  1. A. Liver
  2. B. Urethra
  3. C. Kidneys
  4. D. Salivary glands
  5. E. Gall bladder

Correct answer: B – Urethra

The distal urethra contains resident flora, primarily Staphylococcus epidermidis and other coagulase-negative staphylococci. The other sites listed are normally sterile.

Q24: Resident flora is absent from the: A) Pharynx

  1. A. Pharynx
  2. B. Lungs
  3. C. Small intestine
  4. D. Synovial fluid
  5. E. Conjunctiva

Correct answer: D – Synovial fluid

Synovial fluid in healthy joints is sterile. The other sites normally contain resident flora, though the lungs have minimal flora in healthy individuals.

Q25: A 65-year-old woman post-surgery with central line becomes febrile. Blood and line tip cultures grow gram-positive organisms that are ovoid and reproduce by budding. The most likely organism is: A) Staphylococcus aureus

  1. A. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
  3. C. Enterococcus faecalis
  4. D. Candida albicans
  5. E. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Correct answer: D – Candida albicans

The description of ovoid organisms reproducing by budding describes yeast. Candida albicans commonly causes catheter-related bloodstream infections, especially in patients on broad-spectrum antibiotics.

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