Practice 60 MCQs on Genetic Disorders MCQ Examination (Part 2) with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prep...
Q1. A genetic variant with at least two alleles occurring in at least 1% of the population is termed
Answer: Polymorphism
Explanation: A polymorphism is defined as a genetic variant that has at least two alleles and occurs in at least 1% of the population, distinguishing it from rare mutations.
Q2. In type 1 diabetes, approximately how many genes contribute most significantly to disease risk?
Answer: 6-7 genes
Explanation: While 20-30 genes are implicated in type 1 diabetes, only 6-7 are most important, with a few HLA alleles contributing more than 50% of the risk.
Q3. Which environmental factor commonly unmasks the genetic trait in type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Answer: Obesity and weight gain
Explanation: Type 2 diabetes has features of a complex multigenic disorder where obesity and weight gain often unmask the diabetic genetic trait, demonstrating gene-environment interaction.
Q4. Approximately what percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have chromosomal abnormalities?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: Approximately 50% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the importance of chromosomal integrity for fetal development.
Q5. The G-banding technique uses which stain to visualize chromosomes?
Answer: Giemsa stain
Explanation: The G-banding (Giemsa banding) technique is widely used to stain chromosomes, producing distinctive patterns of alternating light and dark bands that allow identification of each chromosome.
Q6. A chromosome number of 69 (3n) would be classified as
Answer: Euploid and polyploid
Explanation: 69 chromosomes (3n) is an exact multiple of the haploid number (n=23), making it euploid. Since it's a multiple other than 2n, it's also polyploid (specifically triploid).
Q7. The chief cause of aneuploidy is
Answer: Nondisjunction during meiosis
Explanation: Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes during the first meiotic division or failure of sister chromatids to separate during the second meiotic division is the chief cause of aneuploidy.
Q8. Monosomy involving an autosome is
Answer: Incompatible with life
Explanation: Monosomy involving an autosome is incompatible with life, whereas trisomies of certain autosomes and monosomy of sex chromosomes can be compatible with life.
Q9. Mosaicism is defined as
Answer: Presence of two or more populations of cells with different chromosome complements
Explanation: Mosaicism is the presence of two or more populations of cells with different complements of chromosomes in the same individual, usually resulting from postzygotic mitotic nondisjunction.
Q10. In cytogenetic notation, "p" denotes
Answer: The short arm of a chromosome
Explanation: In cytogenetic shorthand, "p" (from French "petit") denotes the short arm of a chromosome, while "q" denotes the long arm.
Q11. The notation 46,XX,t(2;5)(q31;p14) indicates
Answer: Reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 2 and 5
Explanation: This notation indicates a reciprocal translocation involving the long arm of chromosome 2 at region 3 band 1, and the short arm of chromosome 5 at region 1 band 4.
Q12. Robertsonian translocation typically involves
Answer: Two acrocentric chromosomes
Explanation: Robertsonian (centric) fusion is a reciprocal translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes, involving the short arm of one and long arm of the other, forming one large and one very small chromosome.
Q13. The most common isochromosome in live births involves
Answer: Long arm of the X chromosome [i(Xq)]
Explanation: The most common isochromosome in live births is i(Xq), involving the long arm of the X chromosome, resulting in monosomy for Xp genes and trisomy for Xq genes.
Q14. An isochromosome results from
Answer: Horizontal division of the centromere
Explanation: Isochromosomes result when the centromere divides horizontally (rather than vertically), leading to loss of one arm and duplication of the other, creating two identical arms.
Q15. Which statement about chromosomal abnormalities is correct?
Answer: Loss of chromosomal material produces more severe defects than gain
Explanation: In general, loss of chromosomal material produces more severe defects than does gain of chromosomal material, which is why monosomies are typically more severe than trisomies.
Q16. Sex chromosome imbalances compared to autosomal imbalances are
Answer: Tolerated much better
Explanation: Imbalances of sex chromosomes (excess or loss) are tolerated much better than similar imbalances of autosomes, often producing subtle abnormalities.
Q17. Quantitative trait loci (QTLs) include all of the following EXCEPT
Answer: Down syndrome
Explanation: QTLs are normal phenotypic characteristics governed by multigenic inheritance showing continuous variation, including hair color, eye color, height, and intelligence. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder.
Q18. The most common chromosomal disorder is
Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrom
Explanation: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common chromosomal disorder, occurring with notable frequency compared to other chromosomal abnormalities.
Q19. In about 95% of Down syndrome cases, the extra chromosome 21 is of
Answer: Maternal origin
Explanation: In approximately 95% of trisomy 21 cases, the extra chromosome is of maternal origin, resulting from meiotic nondisjunction in the ovum.
Q20. Maternal age has the strongest correlation with which type of Down syndrome?
Answer: Meiotic nondisjunction form
Explanation: Maternal age has a strong influence on Down syndrome due to meiotic nondisjunction (95% of cases), with incidence increasing dramatically with advancing maternal age.
Q21. The translocation form of Down syndrome accounts for approximately what percentage of cases?
Answer: 25%
Explanation: About 4% of trisomy 21 patients have the extra chromosomal material as a translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21 to chromosome 22 or 14, often familial.
Q22. Mosaic Down syndrome accounts for approximately what percentage of cases?
Answer: 10%
Explanation: Approximately 1% of trisomy 21 patients are mosaics with a mixture of 46- and 47-chromosome cells, resulting from mitotic nondisjunction during early embryogenesis.
Q23. Which cardiac defect is most common in Down syndrome?
Answer: Endocardial cushion defects
Explanation: Approximately 40% of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease, most commonly endocardial cushion defects including atrial and ventricular septal defects.
Q24. Children with trisomy 21 have what increased risk of developing acute leukemia?
Answer: 10- to 20-fold
Explanation: Children with trisomy 21 have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute leukemia, including both acute lymphoblastic and acute myeloid leukemias.
Q25. Most Down syndrome patients older than 40 develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of
Answer: Alzheimer disease
Explanation: Virtually all patients with trisomy 21 older than age 40 develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease.
Q26. The current median age at death for persons with Down syndrome is
Answer: 47 years
Explanation: Improved medical care has increased longevity in Down syndrome from a median of 25 years in 1983 to currently 47 years.
Q27. Most Down syndrome patients have an IQ in which range?
Answer: 25 to 50
Explanation: Down syndrome is a leading cause of severe mental retardation; approximately 80% have an IQ of 25 to 50.
Q28. Trisomy 18 is also known as
Answer: Edwards syndrome
Explanation: Trisomy 18 is also known as Edwards syndrome, occurring less commonly than trisomy 21 and associated with severe malformations and early death.
Q29. Trisomy 13 is also known as
Answer: Patau syndrome
Explanation: Trisomy 13 is also known as Patau syndrome, associated with increased maternal age, severe malformations, and death usually within the first year of life.
Q30. The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome was previously thought to represent which two separate disorders?
Answer: DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome
Explanation: The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome encompasses what were previously believed to be two different disorders: DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome.
Q31. Which gene on chromosome 22 is suspected to be responsible for DiGeorge syndrome features?
Answer: TBX1
Explanation: The transcription factor gene TBX1 in the 22q11.2 region is suspected to be responsible for DiGeorge syndrome features, as its loss correlates with syndrome occurrence.
Q32. Patients with 22q11.2 deletion are at particularly high risk for
Answer: Psychoses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
Explanation: In addition to malformations, patients with 22q11.2 deletion are at particularly high risk for developing psychoses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.
Q33. The diagnosis of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome is established by
Answer: Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
Explanation: While diagnosis may be suspected clinically, it can only be established by detection of the deletion using fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH).
Q34. Clinical features of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome include all EXCEPT
Answer: Hepatomegaly with cirrhosis
Explanation: Features include cardiac defects, palate abnormalities, facial dysmorphism, developmental delay, thymic hypoplasia, and parathyroid hypoplasia. Hepatic involvement is not characteristic.
Q35. When T cell immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia dominate in 22q11.2 deletion, the patient is said to have
Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Explanation: When T cell immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia are dominant features, patients are said to have DiGeorge syndrome, while velocardiofacial syndrome has pronounced dysmorphology and cardiac defects.
Q36. According to the common disease-common variant hypothesis, complex disorders occur when
Answer: Many polymorphisms with modest effects are co-inherited
Explanation: Complex multigenic disorders occur when many polymorphisms, each with modest effect and low penetrance, are co-inherited, according to the common disease-common variant hypothesis.
Q37. A ring chromosome forms when
Answer: Segments are lost from each end and arms unite
Explanation: A ring chromosome is a variant of deletion where, after loss of segments from each end of the chromosome, the remaining arms unite to form a ring structure.
Q38. Deletion of which chromosome's short arm causes cri du chat syndrome?
Answer: Chromosome 5
Explanation: Cri du chat syndrome results from partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 (5p-), named for the characteristic cat-like cry of affected infants.
Q39. An inversion occurs when
Answer: Two interstitial breaks occur and segment reunites after turnaround
Explanation: Inversions occur when there are two interstitial breaks in a chromosome and the segment between them reunites after rotating 180 degrees (complete turnaround).
Q40. A balanced reciprocal translocation involves
Answer: Exchange with no net gain or loss of genetic material
Explanation: Balanced reciprocal translocations involve exchange of chromosomal material between two chromosomes with no net gain or loss of genetic material, potentially causing problems during meiosis.
Q41. Which best describes complex multigenic disorders?
Answer: Caused by interactions between gene variants and environmental factors
Explanation: Complex multigenic (or multifactorial/polygenic) disorders are caused by interactions between variant forms of genes and environmental factors.
Q42. Anaphase lag can lead to aneuploidy through
Answer: Failure of pairing followed by random assortment
Explanation: Failure of pairing of homologous chromosomes followed by random assortment (anaphase lag) can lead to aneuploidy, in addition to nondisjunction.
Q43. Mosaicism affecting which chromosomes is most common?
Answer: Sex chromosomes
Explanation: Mosaicism affecting sex chromosomes is common, whereas autosomal mosaicism is relatively uncommon.
Q44. In most chromosomal disorders, the parents are
Answer: Normal with de novo changes in offspring
Explanation: In most cases, chromosomal disorders result from de novo changes (parents are normal and risk of recurrence in siblings is low), with translocation Down syndrome being an important exception.
Q45. Fertilization of a gamete with an extra chromosome (n+1) by a normal gamete produces
Answer: Trisomic zygote (2n+1)
Explanation: Fertilization of a gamete containing an extra chromosome (n+1) by a normal gamete (n) results in a trisomic zygote with 2n+1 chromosomes.
Q46. Polyploidy (3n, 4n) generally results in
Answer: Spontaneous abortion
Explanation: Polyploidy, where chromosome numbers are 3n or 4n (exact multiples of the haploid number other than 2n), generally results in spontaneous abortion.
Q47. Which THREE autosomal trisomies were among the first chromosomal abnormalities identified?
Answer: 13, 18, and 21
Explanation: Trisomies 21, 18, and 13 were among the first chromosomal abnormalities identified, along with cri du chat syndrome (5p deletion).
Q48. The incidence of Down syndrome in women younger than 20 years is approximately
Answer: 1 in 1550 live births
Explanation: Down syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in 1550 live births in women younger than 20 years, increasing dramatically to 1 in 25 in women older than 45 years.
Q49. The immune dysfunction in Down syndrome primarily affects
Answer: Mainly T cell function
Explanation: Patients with Down syndrome demonstrate abnormal immune responses with abnormalities affecting mainly T cell functions, predisposing to infections and thyroid autoimmunity.
Q50. In the translocation form of Down syndrome, the translocated chromosome is most commonly inherited from
Answer: A parent who is a carrier of a robertsonian translocation
Explanation: The translocation form is frequently (but not always) familial, with the translocated chromosome inherited from a parent who is typically a carrier of a robertsonian translocation.
Q51. Variable expressivity in complex traits can be confused with
Answer: Penetrance of single genes
Explanation: Variable expressivity and reduced penetrance of single mutant genes can account for severity variation, making it sometimes difficult to distinguish mendelian from multifactorial disorders.
Q52. Assigning a disease to complex multigenic inheritance depends first on
Answer: Familial clustering and exclusion of mendelian/chromosomal transmission
Explanation: Attribution to complex multigenic inheritance depends first on familial clustering and the exclusion of mendelian and chromosomal modes of transmission.
Q53. Approximately what percentage of newborns have some form of chromosomal abnormality?
Answer: 1 in 200
Explanation: It is estimated that 1 in 200 newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality, though many more embryos with abnormalities result in spontaneous abortion.
Q54. In HLA-associated diseases, a few HLA alleles can contribute what percentage of the risk in type 1 diabetes?
Answer: More than 50%
Explanation: In type 1 diabetes, a few HLA alleles contribute more than 50% of the genetic risk, demonstrating that different polymorphisms vary significantly in their contributions.
Q55. Some polymorphisms in immune-mediated inflammatory diseases are
Answer: Common to multiple diseases of the same type
Explanation: Some polymorphisms are common to multiple diseases of the same type (e.g., various immune-mediated inflammatory diseases), while others are disease-specific.
Q56. Two interstitial breaks with reunion of proximal and distal segments results in
Answer: Loss of intermediate segment (deletion)
Explanation: Two interstitial breaks with reunion of proximal and distal segments result in loss of the intermediate segment (deletion), with the isolated fragment lacking a centromere typically being lost.
Q57. Sex chromosomal disorders often produce abnormalities that are
Answer: Subtle and sometimes not detected at birth
Explanation: Sex chromosomal disorders often produce subtle abnormalities that may not be detected at birth, with infertility being a common manifestation that cannot be diagnosed until adolescence.
Q58. Which statement about Down syndrome mosaics is correct?
Answer: Clinical manifestations are variable and often milder
Explanation: Mosaic Down syndrome patients (1% of cases) have variable and milder clinical manifestations depending on the proportion of abnormal cells; some mosaics have normal or near-normal intelligence.
Q59. Cardiac problems in Down syndrome are responsible for
Answer: Majority of deaths in infancy and early childhood
Explanation: Cardiac problems, particularly endocardial cushion defects, are responsible for the majority of deaths in infancy and early childhood in Down syndrome patients.
Q60. --- END OF EXAMINATION
Answer: Lost