General Pathology – 30 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

Q1: Vasoactive amines responsible for vasodilatation during inflammation are released from which cell type?

1. A. Plasma cells
2. B. Lymphocytes
3. C. Monocytes
4. D. Mast cells

Correct answer: D – Mast cells

Mast cells contain preformed vasoactive mediators including histamine, which causes immediate vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during the early phase of acute inflammation.

Q2: Bradykinin causes all the following during inflammation EXCEPT:

1. A. Smooth muscle contraction
2. B. Pain
3. C. Dilatation of blood vessels
4. D. Opsonisation and Chemotaxis

Correct answer: D – Opsonisation and Chemotaxis

Bradykinin is a vasoactive peptide that causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, and pain. It does not directly cause opsonization or chemotaxis.

Q3: Granulomas are characterised by all of the following EXCEPT:

1. A. Features of chronic inflammation
2. B. Accumulation of modified macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells
3. C. Initiation by both infectious and non-infectious agents
4. D. Acute inflammatory reaction

Correct answer: D – Acute inflammatory reaction

Granulomas are a form of chronic inflammation characterized by collections of epithelioid cells, lymphocytes, and sometimes giant cells.

Q4: During acute inflammation, tissue oedema occurs due to:

1. A. Increased capillary permeability
2. B. Decreased capillary permeability
3. C. Decreased interstitial fluid
4. D. Decreased blood flow

Correct answer: A – Increased capillary permeability

Tissue edema results from increased vascular permeability, allowing plasma proteins and fluid to leak into the interstitial space.

Q5: The process by which white blood cells migrate from blood vessels through widened inter-endothelial junctions is referred to as:

1. A. Pavementing
2. B. Diapedesis
3. C. Rouleaux formation
4. D. Chemotaxis migration

Correct answer: B – Diapedesis

Diapedesis (transmigration) is the process by which leukocytes migrate between endothelial cells to exit the vascular compartment.

Q6: During acute inflammation, Interleukin-1 (IL-1) helps in:

1. A. Stimulation of T-lymphocytes
2. B. Inhibiting B-lymphocytes
3. C. Inhibiting chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages
4. D. Decreasing fibroblast and bone resorption activity

Correct answer: A – Stimulation of T-lymphocytes

IL-1 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that stimulates T-lymphocyte activation and proliferation.

Q7: The following are mediators of inflammation EXCEPT:

1. A. Interferons
2. B. Prostaglandins
3. C. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
4. D. Myeloperoxidase enzyme

Correct answer: D – Myeloperoxidase enzyme

Myeloperoxidase is an enzyme in neutrophil granules used for antimicrobial activity, not a primary mediator of inflammation.

Q8: Caseating type granulomas are usually seen in:

1. A. Viral infections
2. B. Tuberculosis
3. C. Pyogenic bacterial infections
4. D. Meningitis

Correct answer: B – Tuberculosis

Caseating granulomas with central necrosis are characteristic of mycobacterial infections, particularly tuberculosis.

Q9: In granulomas, epithelioid and giant cells are derived from:

1. A. T-lymphocytes
2. B. B-lymphocytes
3. C. Plasma cells
4. D. Circulating monocytes

Correct answer: D – Circulating monocytes

Epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells are derived from activated macrophages, which originate from circulating monocytes.

Q10: The characteristic cells of chronic inflammation are all EXCEPT:

1. A. Plasma cells
2. B. Macrophages
3. C. Lymphocytes
4. D. Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)

Correct answer: D – Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)

PMNs (neutrophils) are the hallmark of acute inflammation; chronic inflammation involves mononuclear cells.

Q11: The following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation EXCEPT:

1. A. Vasodilation
2. B. Stasis of blood
3. C. Increased vascular permeability
4. D. Decreased blood flow

Correct answer: D – Decreased blood flow

Acute inflammation initially causes increased blood flow due to vasodilation.

Q12: The most common fixative used to preserve tissue in histopathology is:

1. A. 10% Formalin
2. B. Ethylene glycol
3. C. Haematoxylin
4. D. 95% Ethanol

Correct answer: A – 10% Formalin

10% neutral buffered formalin is the standard fixative used to cross-link proteins and preserve morphology.

Q13: Cells which have the capacity to multiply throughout their lifespan are referred to as:

1. A. Stable cells
2. B. Permanent cells
3. C. Labile cells
4. D. None of the above

Correct answer: C – Labile cells

Labile cells (e.g., skin, GI epithelium) continuously divide to replace lost cells.

Q14: The following cells have LEAST capacity for regeneration:

1. A. Cardiac muscle
2. B. Skeletal muscle
3. C. Neuronal cells
4. D. Liver cells

Correct answer: C – Neuronal cells

Neurons are permanent cells with minimal to no regenerative capacity in the adult CNS.

Q15: The FIRST event in primary wound healing is:

1. A. Epithelial changes
2. B. Organization
3. C. Formation of blood clot
4. D. Acute inflammatory response

Correct answer: C – Formation of blood clot

Hemostasis and clot formation occur immediately to stop bleeding and provide a scaffold.

Q16: Clean, uninfected, surgically incised wounds whose edges are approximated by surgical sutures heal by:

1. A. Primary intention
2. B. Secondary intention
3. C. Cauterisation
4. D. Regeneration

Correct answer: A – Primary intention

Q17: Large open wounds characterised by tissue loss and repaired by granulation tissue in the floor heal by:

1. A. Secondary intention
2. B. Primary intention
3. C. Cauterisation
4. D. Regeneration

Correct answer: A – Secondary intention

Q18: The following events are common to primary and secondary wound healing EXCEPT:

1. A. Formation of blood clot
2. B. Inflammatory response
3. C. Epithelial changes
4. D. Wound contraction

Correct answer: D – Wound contraction

Wound contraction is primarily a feature of secondary intention healing.

Q19: The following factors inhibit wound healing EXCEPT:

1. A. Infection
2. B. Cortisol
3. C. Foreign bodies
4. D. Proteins

Correct answer: D – Proteins

Proteins are essential building blocks for repair and collagen synthesis.

Q20: Granulation tissue consists of the following EXCEPT:

1. A. Fibroblasts
2. B. Macrophages
3. C. Polymorphonuclear cells
4. D. Budding young blood vessels

Correct answer: C – Polymorphonuclear cells

Q21: The correct sequence of the cell cycle is:

1. A. G0 – G1 – S – G2 – M
2. B. G0 – G1 – G2 – S – M
3. C. G0 – M – G2 – S – G1
4. D. G0 – G1 – S – M – G2

Correct answer: A – G0 – G1 – S – G2 – M

Q22: The following local factors influence wound healing EXCEPT:

1. A. Nutrition
2. B. Adequate blood supply
3. C. Size and location of wound
4. D. Presence of infection

Correct answer: A – Nutrition

Nutrition is a systemic factor, not a local factor.

Q23: The term Metaplasia refers to:

1. A. Irregular, atypical proliferative changes
2. B. Loss of cell substance producing shrinkage
3. C. Replacement of one type of adult cell by another
4. D. None of the above

Correct answer: C – Replacement of one type of adult cell by another

Q24: Malignant neoplasms show all the following features EXCEPT:

1. A. Disorganized cell structure
2. B. Capsulation
3. C. Invasion of local and distant tissues
4. D. Rapid, erratic growth

Correct answer: B – Capsulation

Malignant tumors typically lack a capsule and are invasive.

Q25: The increase in size of individual cells within an organ is referred to as:

1. A. Hypertrophy
2. B. Hyperplasia
3. C. Atrophy
4. D. Differentiation

Correct answer: A – Hypertrophy