TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES & CELL CYCLE CONTROL MCQs – 50 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

50 Year 2: Molecular Biology exam questions on TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES & CELL CYCLE CONTROL MCQs for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and w

This MCQ set contains 50 questions on TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES & CELL CYCLE CONTROL MCQs in the Year 2: Molecular Biology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: What is the chromosomal location of the RB gene?

  1. A. 13q11
  2. B. 13q14
  3. C. 17p13
  4. D. 5q21

Correct answer: B – 13q14

The RB gene, the first tumor suppressor gene to be discovered, is located at chromosomal locus 13q14.

Q2: According to Knudson's two-hit hypothesis, how many mutations are required to develop retinoblastoma?

  1. A. One mutation is sufficient
  2. B. Two hits (mutations) are required
  3. C. Three mutations are needed
  4. D. Four or more mutations

Correct answer: B – Two hits (mutations) are required

Knudson's two-hit hypothesis states that two hits are required to develop retinoblastoma - both copies of the RB tumor suppressor gene must be dysfunctional.

Q3: In familial retinoblastoma, what is the origin of the first hit?

  1. A. Both mutations are somatic
  2. B. One mutation is inherited (germline), second is somatic
  3. C. Both mutations are inherited
  4. D. Mutations occur after birth

Correct answer: B – One mutation is inherited (germline), second is somatic

In familial cases, one hit (mutation) is inherited in the germline and the second hit develops when the normal Rb gene is lost by somatic mutation in retinoblasts.

Q4: What is the critical cell cycle checkpoint controlled by the RB gene?

  1. A. G2/M transition
  2. B. M/G1 transition
  3. C. G1/S transition
  4. D. S/G2 transition

Correct answer: C – G1/S transition

The Rb gene exerts antiproliferative effects by controlling the G1/S transition of the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering S phase inappropriately.

Q5: In its active tumor suppressor form, what is the phosphorylation state of RB protein?

  1. A. Hyperphosphorylated
  2. B. Hypophosphorylated
  3. C. Unphosphorylated
  4. D. Dephosphorylated then rephosphorylated

Correct answer: B – Hypophosphorylated

In its active form, Rb is hypophosphorylated and binds to E2F transcription factor, preventing transcription of genes required for DNA replication like cyclin E.

Q6: What transcription factor does hypophosphorylated RB bind to?

  1. A. p53
  2. B. E2F
  3. C. NF-κB
  4. D. AP-1

Correct answer: B – E2F

Hypophosphorylated Rb binds to E2F transcription factor, preventing E2F from activating transcription of genes required for cell cycle progression and DNA replication.

Q7: What percentage of tumors demonstrate biallelic loss of TP53?

  1. A. 30%
  2. B. 50%
  3. C. 70%
  4. D. 90%

Correct answer: C – 70%

Approximately 70% of tumors demonstrate biallelic loss of TP53, highlighting its critical role as a tumor suppressor and "guardian of the genome."

Q8: Which syndrome is associated with germline mutation in one TP53 allele?

  1. A. Lynch syndrome
  2. B. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
  3. C. Familial adenomatous polyposis
  4. D. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

Correct answer: B – Li-Fraumeni syndrome

Li-Fraumeni syndrome involves inheritance of one defective TP53 allele in the germline, with the second defect occurring in somatic cells, predisposing to multiple cancers.

Q9: What is p53 commonly referred to as due to its critical role in genomic stability?

  1. A. Governor of the cell cycle
  2. B. Guardian of the genome
  3. C. Master regulator
  4. D. Cell cycle brake

Correct answer: B – Guardian of the genome

p53 is called the "guardian of the genome" because it serves as the central monitor of cellular stress and can initiate responses to maintain genomic integrity.

Q10: Which stresses can activate p53 protein?

  1. A. Anoxia, oncogene signaling, and DNA damage
  2. B. Nutrient excess only
  3. C. Normal cell growth
  4. D. Mitosis

Correct answer: A – Anoxia, oncogene signaling, and DNA damage

p53 is the central monitor of stress in the cell and can be activated by anoxia, inappropriate oncogene signaling, or DNA damage.

Q11: What mechanism activates p53 in response to DNA damage?

  1. A. Dephosphorylation
  2. B. Phosphorylation
  3. C. Acetylation only
  4. D. Ubiquitination

Correct answer: B – Phosphorylation

DNA damage leads to activation of p53 by phosphorylation, which stabilizes the protein and activates its transcriptional functions.

Q12: What gene does activated p53 drive transcription of to cause G1-S cell cycle block?

  1. A. CDK4
  2. B. Cyclin E
  3. C. CDKN1A (p21)
  4. D. Cyclin D

Correct answer: C – CDKN1A (p21)

Activated p53 drives transcription of CDKN1A (which encodes p21), a CDK inhibitor that prevents Rb phosphorylation, thereby causing a G1-S block in the cell cycle.

Q13: What is the purpose of the G1-S cell cycle block induced by p53?

  1. A. To promote cell division
  2. B. To allow cells to repair DNA damage
  3. C. To induce immediate apoptosis
  4. D. To accelerate cell growth

Correct answer: B – To allow cells to repair DNA damage

The pause in cell cycle progression allows cells time to repair DNA damage. If damage cannot be repaired, p53 then induces cellular senescence or apoptosis.

Q14: If DNA damage cannot be repaired, what outcomes can p53 induce?

  1. A. Continued proliferation
  2. B. Cellular senescence or apoptosis
  3. C. Enhanced DNA synthesis
  4. D. Increased telomerase activity

Correct answer: B – Cellular senescence or apoptosis

If DNA damage cannot be repaired despite the cell cycle pause, p53 induces either cellular senescence (permanent growth arrest) or apoptosis (programmed cell death).

Q15: How do oncogenic DNA viruses like HPV disable RB and p53 function?

  1. A. By deleting the genes
  2. B. By encoding proteins that bind to RB and p53
  3. C. By preventing gene transcription
  4. D. By inducing mutations

Correct answer: B – By encoding proteins that bind to RB and p53

Oncogenic DNA viruses like HPV encode proteins that bind to RB and p53, rendering them non-functional and allowing uncontrolled cell proliferation.

Q16: What percentage of pancreatic cancers have mutations in at least one component of the TGF-β pathway?

  1. A. 50%
  2. B. 70%
  3. C. 83%
  4. D. 100%

Correct answer: D – 100%

In 100% of pancreatic cancers and 83% of colon cancers, at least one component of the TGF-β pathway is mutated, highlighting its critical role as a growth inhibitor.

Q17: In most normal epithelial, endothelial, and hematopoietic cells, what is the effect of TGF-β?

  1. A. Potent promoter of proliferation
  2. B. Potent inhibitor of proliferation
  3. C. No effect on proliferation
  4. D. Variable effect depending on cell type

Correct answer: B – Potent inhibitor of proliferation

In most normal epithelial, endothelial, and hematopoietic cells, TGF-β is a potent inhibitor of proliferation, transmitting antiproliferative signals.

Q18: What cellular process does TGF-β activate in late-stage tumors that promotes metastasis?

  1. A. Apoptosis
  2. B. Senescence
  3. C. Epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT)
  4. D. Differentiation

Correct answer: C – Epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT)

In late-stage tumors, TGF-β signaling can paradoxically activate epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT), promoting migration, invasion, and metastasis.

Q19: What does TGF-β signaling activate that has growth-suppressing activity?

  1. A. Cyclins
  2. B. CDK inhibitors (CDKIs)
  3. C. Growth factor receptors
  4. D. Oncogenes

Correct answer: B – CDK inhibitors (CDKIs)

TGF-β signaling leads to transcriptional activation of CDK inhibitors (CDKIs) with growth-suppressing activity, while also repressing growth-promoting genes like MYC and cyclins.

Q20: Which genes does TGF-β signaling repress?

  1. A. Tumor suppressor genes
  2. B. DNA repair genes
  3. C. MYC, CDK2, CDK4, and cyclins A and E
  4. D. Apoptosis genes

Correct answer: C – MYC, CDK2, CDK4, and cyclins A and E

TGF-β signaling represses growth-promoting genes such as MYC, CDK2, CDK4, and those encoding cyclins A and E, contributing to its antiproliferative effects.

Q21: What cellular behavior is abolished in cancer cells, allowing them to pile on top of one another?

  1. A. Apoptosis
  2. B. Contact inhibition
  3. C. Senescence
  4. D. Differentiation

Correct answer: B – Contact inhibition

Contact inhibition is abolished in cancer cells, allowing them to pile on top of one another and continue proliferating despite cell-cell contact.

Q22: Which molecule maintains contact inhibition and is lost in malignant cells?

  1. A. N-cadherin
  2. B. E-cadherin
  3. C. Integrin
  4. D. Selectin

Correct answer: B – E-cadherin

E-cadherin maintains contact inhibition, which is lost in malignant cells, allowing them to overcome this normal growth-limiting mechanism.

Q23: What protein does the NF2 tumor suppressor gene produce?

  1. A. E-cadherin
  2. B. β-catenin
  3. C. Neurofibromin-2 (merlin)
  4. D. APC

Correct answer: C – Neurofibromin-2 (merlin)

The NF2 tumor suppressor gene produces neurofibromin-2 (merlin), which facilitates E-cadherin-mediated contact inhibition.

Q24: How does the APC gene exert antiproliferative actions?

  1. A. By activating p53
  2. B. By regulating destruction of cytoplasmic β-catenin
  3. C. By inhibiting RB phosphorylation
  4. D. By blocking TGF-β receptors

Correct answer: B – By regulating destruction of cytoplasmic β-catenin

The APC gene exerts antiproliferative actions by regulating the destruction of cytoplasmic β-catenin, preventing its nuclear translocation and transcriptional activity.

Q25: What happens when APC is mutated and lost?

  1. A. β-catenin is destroyed
  2. B. β-catenin accumulates, translocates to nucleus, acts as growth-promoting transcription factor
  3. C. Cell cycle arrest occurs
  4. D. Apoptosis is induced

Correct answer: B – β-catenin accumulates, translocates to nucleus, acts as growth-promoting transcription factor

With APC mutation and loss, β-catenin is not destroyed, accumulates in the cytoplasm, translocates to the nucleus, and acts as a growth-promoting transcription factor.

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