Immunology Quiz | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 44 MCQs on Immunology Quiz with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Phagocytic white cells (leukocytes, e.g. macrophages) congregate within when foreign organisms get through a cut in the skin. Options

    Answer: Minutes

    Explanation: Phagocytic cells like neutrophils and macrophages respond to tissue damage and infection within minutes through chemotactic signals. This rapid response is characteristic of the innate immune system's immediate defense mechanism. ---

  2. Q2. Which of the following mediates an early response to viral infections by the innate immune system? Options

    Answer: Interferons

    Explanation: Interferons are proteins produced by virus-infected cells that provide immediate antiviral protection by inhibiting viral replication in neighboring cells. They are a key component of the innate immune response to viral infections. ---

  3. Q3. Which of the following is a messenger that mediates the connection between the innate and adaptive immune systems? Options

    Answer: Cytokines

    Explanation: Cytokines are signaling molecules that facilitate communication between different immune cells and coordinate both innate and adaptive immune responses. They act as messengers that bridge these two immune systems. ---

  4. Q4. Which of the following immune system components would NOT recognize a macromolecule epitope (binding site)? Options

    Answer: Phagocyte

    Explanation: Phagocytes recognize general pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) rather than specific epitopes. T cells, B cells, antibodies, and NK cells all have mechanisms for recognizing specific molecular structures or epitopes. ---

  5. Q5. Which of the following is a large genomic region or gene family found in most vertebrates, playing an important role in immunity? Options

    Answer: Major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)

    Explanation: The MHC is a large gene complex found in most vertebrates that encodes proteins essential for adaptive immunity, including antigen presentation to T cells. HLAs are the human version of MHC, but MHC is the broader term applicable to all vertebrates. ---

  6. Q6. T cells are made in the and complete their differentiation in the . Options

    Answer: Bone marrow; Thymus

    Explanation: All blood cells, including T cell precursors, originate in the bone marrow. T cells then migrate to the thymus where they undergo selection and maturation processes to become functional T lymphocytes. ---

  7. Q7. Which of the following is a transmembrane glycoprotein that serves as a co-receptor for the T cell receptor (TCR), and is also known as a cytotoxic T cell (CTL)? Options

    Answer: Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)

    Explanation: CD8+ T cells are cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) that express the CD8 co-receptor, which binds to MHC class I molecules. These cells are responsible for killing infected or abnormal cells. ---

  8. Q8. Which of the following produce large amounts of antibodies (Igs) and differentiate upon stimulation from CD4+ cells? Options

    Answer: Plasma cells (activated B cells)

    Explanation: Plasma cells are differentiated B cells that specialize in producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies. They develop from B cells following activation by antigens and helper T cells (CD4+). ---

  9. Q9. Which of the following is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of T helper cells, regulatory T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells? Options

    Answer: Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)

    Explanation: CD4 is expressed on helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and various antigen-presenting cells. It serves as a co-receptor that binds to MHC class II molecules during antigen presentation. ---

  10. Q10. Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is critical in uptake and presentation of antigen to T cells? Options

    Answer: Dendritic cell

    Explanation: Dendritic cells are the most potent antigen-presenting cells and are critical for initiating adaptive immune responses. They efficiently capture, process, and present antigens to naive T cells in secondary lymphoid organs. ---

  11. Q11. Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) has immunoglobulin that functions as a receptor, then the antigen is internalized, degraded, and presented to T cells? Options

    Answer: B cell

    Explanation: B cells express membrane-bound immunoglobulins (antibodies) as their antigen receptors. When these receptors bind specific antigens, the antigen-antibody complex is internalized, processed, and presented on MHC class II molecules to T helper cells. ---

  12. Q12. Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is specialized for degradation and presentation of particulate antigens to T cells? Options

    Answer: Macrophage

    Explanation: Macrophages are particularly effective at phagocytosing and degrading particulate antigens, pathogens, and cellular debris. They then present processed antigens to T cells via MHC molecules. ---

  13. Q13. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the complement system? Options

    Answer: They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells

    Explanation: Complement components attract phagocytes to foreign material and pathogens, but they should NOT attract phagocytes to healthy self-cells. The complement system is designed to distinguish self from non-self. ---

  14. Q14. Which of the following has an immunoglobulin fold? Options

    Answer: BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

    Explanation: The immunoglobulin fold is a common structural motif found in the immunoglobulin superfamily, which includes B cell receptors (BCRs), T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules. ---

  15. Q15. The genes encoding which of the following can undergo hypermutation to create receptors that are an even better fit for foreign antigens? Options

    Answer: BCRs

    Explanation: Only B cell receptors (antibodies) undergo somatic hypermutation in germinal centers to improve antigen binding affinity. TCRs and MHCs do not undergo this process. ---

  16. Q16. The genes encoding which of the following are extensively polymorphic (have multiple alleles or forms of the same gene)? Options

    Answer: MHCs

    Explanation: MHC genes are the most polymorphic genes in the human genome, with hundreds of allelic variants. This diversity allows populations to present a wide variety of pathogenic peptides. ---

  17. Q17. Each antibody molecule contains heavy chains and light chains. Options

    Answer: 2; 2

    Explanation: A typical antibody molecule has a Y-shaped structure consisting of 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains, connected by disulfide bonds. ---

  18. Q18. Which of the following binds to an Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils? Options

    Answer: IgE

    Explanation: IgE binds to high-affinity Fc receptors (FcεRI) on mast cells and basophils. Cross-linking of bound IgE by allergens triggers degranulation and allergic reactions. ---

  19. Q19. Which of the following is NOT involved in the antigen-antibody interaction? Options

    Answer: Peptide bonds

    Explanation: Antigen-antibody interactions involve non-covalent forces like electrostatic interactions, hydrophobic interactions, Van der Waals forces, and hydrogen bonds. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds within protein structures, not between antigen and antibody. ---

  20. Q20. This can complicate the treatment of bacterial infections in these patients because they are unable to take the antibiotics necessary to combat the infection. Options

    Answer: IgE

    Explanation: IgE-mediated allergic reactions to antibiotics (like penicillin) can prevent patients from taking necessary antimicrobial treatments, complicating the management of bacterial infections. ---

  21. Q21. Which of the following is used to enumerate and/or separate live cells that express an antigen, sorted by applying an electric charge to the stained cells? Options

    Answer: FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

    Explanation: FACS uses fluorescent antibodies to label cells and then sorts them based on their fluorescence properties using laser excitation and electrical charges to separate different cell populations. ---

  22. Q22. Which of the following is a very sensitive and simple test for antigens, which uses a covalent complex of enzyme linked to antibody, to detect antigen directly or to bind antibody-antigen complex? Options

    Answer: ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

    Explanation: ELISA uses enzyme-linked antibodies to detect antigens or antibody-antigen complexes. The enzyme catalyzes a color reaction that can be quantified, making it highly sensitive and widely used for diagnostic purposes. ---

  23. Q23. Which of the following is used to characterize antigens in complex mixtures biochemically? Options

    Answer: Western blotting (immunoblotting)

    Explanation: Western blotting separates proteins by gel electrophoresis and then uses specific antibodies to identify and characterize individual antigens within complex protein mixtures. ---

  24. Q24. Which of the following uses ultraviolet (UV) light for examining specimens? Options

    Answer: Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

    Explanation: Fluorescent antibody techniques use fluorochromes that are excited by UV light and emit visible light, allowing visualization of antigen-antibody binding under fluorescence microscopy. ---

  25. Q25. is frequently found on the surface of B cells co-expressed with . These two classes are co-expressed not by class switching but by alternative processing of a primary RNA transcript. Options

    Answer: IgD & IgM

    Explanation: Mature naive B cells co-express IgD and IgM on their surface through alternative RNA splicing of the same primary transcript. Both have identical variable regions and antigen specificity. ---

  26. Q26. If alternative processing uses the first polyadenylation site, then what type of heavy chain mRNA is derived? Options

    Answer: μ (mu)

    Explanation: When the first polyadenylation site is used in alternative RNA processing, the μ (mu) heavy chain mRNA is produced, resulting in IgM antibody production. ---

  27. Q27. Production of secreted antibodies (pAs site) involves a chain of amino acids with a stretch of charged (versus non-charged) amino acids at the terminus, in comparison to membrane bound antibody production (pAm site). Options

    Answer: Shorter; COOH

    Explanation: Secreted antibodies have shorter heavy chains at the COOH terminus with charged amino acids, lacking the transmembrane and cytoplasmic domains present in membrane-bound antibodies. ---

  28. Q28. In heterozygous individuals who have inherited two alternative forms of the constant region gene for IgG1, which of the following is true regarding the Ig expression by a particular B cell, according to allelic exclusion? Options

    Answer: It will contain only one of the types

    Explanation: Allelic exclusion ensures that each B cell expresses only one allelic form of immunoglobulin, either IgG1m(1) or IgG1m(2), but not both simultaneously. ---

  29. Q29. Protein and nucleic acid sequence data suggest the existence of how many hypervariable (hv) regions within the variable region of TCRs? Options

    Explanation: Like antibodies, T cell receptors have three hypervariable regions (CDR1, CDR2, and CDR3) in their variable domains that are responsible for antigen recognition. ---

  30. Q30. The biochemical structure of the T-cell receptor (TCR) of the αβ type (95% of human TCRs) is comparable to a immunoglobulin fragment, having very short cytoplasmic tails. Options

    Answer: Membrane-bound; Fab

    Explanation: TCRs are membrane-bound receptors structurally similar to the Fab portion of antibodies, containing variable regions for antigen binding but with very short cytoplasmic tails. ---

  31. Q31. Where are T cells generally found in the body (location of TCR rearrangement)? Options

    Answer: Thymus

    Explanation: T cell receptor gene rearrangement and T cell maturation occur in the thymus, where T cells undergo positive and negative selection processes. ---

  32. Q32. Which of the following are located in chromosome 7 within human T-cell receptors? Options

    Answer: Alpha (α)-locus

    Explanation: The α-chain locus (which contains the δ-chain genes) is located on chromosome 7. The β-chain is on chromosome 7, and γ-chain is on chromosome 7. ---

  33. Q33. Comparing the arrangement of TCR genes and BCR genes, the chain is analogous to the heavy (H) chain and the chain is analogous to the light (L) chain. Options

    Answer: Beta; Alpha

    Explanation: In TCR gene organization, the β-chain is analogous to the immunoglobulin heavy chain (has V, D, and J segments), while the α-chain is analogous to the light chain (has V and J segments only). ---

  34. Q34. Which of the following TCR genetic chains contain D-segments, similar to immunoglobulin heavy chains? Options

    Answer: Beta (β); Delta (δ)

    Explanation: Both β and δ chains of TCRs contain D (diversity) segments in their gene structure, similar to immunoglobulin heavy chains, which contribute to receptor diversity. ---

  35. Q35. The process used to increase antigen binding affinity is called somatic and occurs in cells but not cells. Options

    Answer: Hypermutation; B; T

    Explanation: Somatic hypermutation occurs in activated B cells in germinal centers to improve antibody affinity for antigens. T cells do not undergo this process. ---

  36. Q36. Which of the following is NOT true of T-cell receptors, when compared to immunoglobulin? Options

    Answer: After exposure to antigen, there is somatic hypermutation and class switching

    Explanation: TCRs do NOT undergo somatic hypermutation or class switching after antigen exposure, unlike immunoglobulins. TCRs maintain their original structure and specificity. ---

  37. Q37. The T cell-APC interaction is MHC -restricted, and the T cell-target cell interaction is MHC -restricted. Options

    Answer: CD4+; Class II; CD8+; Class I

    Explanation: CD4+ T cells interact with APCs via MHC class II molecules, while CD8+ T cells interact with target cells via MHC class I molecules. This reflects their different functional roles. ---

  38. Q38. Which of the following describes where class I MHC is found and not where class II MHC is found? Options

    Answer: All nucleated cells

    Explanation: MHC class I molecules are found on all nucleated cells, while MHC class II molecules are restricted to antigen-presenting cells (APCs) like B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages. ---

  39. Q39. Peptides antigens generated in the cytosolic compartment bind to MHC molecules for presentation to T cells. Peptide antigens generated in vesicles bind to MHC molecules for presentation to T cells. Options

    Answer: Class I; CD8+; Class II; CD4+

    Explanation: Cytosolic antigens (intracellular pathogens like viruses) are presented on MHC class I to CD8+ T cells. Vesicular antigens (extracellular pathogens) are presented on MHC class II to CD4+ T cells. ---

  40. Q40. In the processing pathway for extracellular antigens, synthesis of MHC class II and invariant chain (Ii) occurs in the . Options

    Answer: Endoplasmic reticulum

    Explanation: MHC class II molecules and the invariant chain are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum, where they assemble before being transported to endosomal compartments. ---

  41. Q41. In the processing pathway for intracellular antigens, the proteasome will viral protein molecules until peptides of residues are formed. Options

    Answer: Break down; 8-11

    Explanation: The proteasome degrades intracellular proteins into short peptides of 8-11 amino acid residues, which are the optimal size for binding to MHC class I molecules. ---

  42. Q42. The transporter associated with antigen presentation (TAP) the peptides to traverse the membrane bilayer of the endoplasmic reticulum and bind in the empty peptide-binding groove of nascent MHC molecules. Options

    Answer: Permits; Class I

    Explanation: TAP transporters allow peptides generated by the proteasome to enter the ER lumen where they can bind to newly synthesized MHC class I molecules. ---

  43. Q43. What is the major site for hematopoiesis, where all blood cells are formed? Options

    Answer: Bone marrow

    Explanation: The bone marrow is the primary site of hematopoiesis in adults, where all blood cell lineages including immune cells originate from hematopoietic stem cells. ---

  44. Q44. Patients with MHC class II (or class I) antigen deficiency would exhibit which of the following? Options

    Answer: Persistent bacterial and viral infections

    Explanation: MHC deficiency severely impairs T cell function and antigen presentation, leading to persistent infections with bacteria and viruses due to inadequate adaptive immune responses. ---

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