Immunology Quiz – 44 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

44 Year 2: Cellular Immunology exam questions on Immunology Quiz for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written questions. Sample: Phago

This MCQ set contains 44 questions on Immunology Quiz in the Year 2: Cellular Immunology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: Phagocytic white cells (leukocytes, e.g. macrophages) congregate within when foreign organisms get through a cut in the skin. Options

  1. A. Microseconds
  2. B. Seconds
  3. C. Minutes
  4. D. Hours
  5. E. Days

Correct answer: C – Minutes

Phagocytic cells like neutrophils and macrophages respond to tissue damage and infection within minutes through chemotactic signals. This rapid response is characteristic of the innate immune system's immediate defense mechanism. ---

Q2: Which of the following mediates an early response to viral infections by the innate immune system? Options

  1. A. Complement components
  2. B. Vaccines
  3. C. T and B lymphocytes
  4. D. Cytokines
  5. E. Interferons

Correct answer: E – Interferons

Interferons are proteins produced by virus-infected cells that provide immediate antiviral protection by inhibiting viral replication in neighboring cells. They are a key component of the innate immune response to viral infections. ---

Q3: Which of the following is a messenger that mediates the connection between the innate and adaptive immune systems? Options

  1. A. Complement components
  2. B. Vaccines
  3. C. T and B lymphocytes
  4. D. Cytokines
  5. E. Interferons

Correct answer: D – Cytokines

Cytokines are signaling molecules that facilitate communication between different immune cells and coordinate both innate and adaptive immune responses. They act as messengers that bridge these two immune systems. ---

Q4: Which of the following immune system components would NOT recognize a macromolecule epitope (binding site)? Options

  1. A. Phagocyte
  2. B. T lymphocyte
  3. C. B lymphocyte
  4. D. Antibody
  5. E. Natural killer cell

Correct answer: A – Phagocyte

Phagocytes recognize general pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) rather than specific epitopes. T cells, B cells, antibodies, and NK cells all have mechanisms for recognizing specific molecular structures or epitopes. ---

Q5: Which of the following is a large genomic region or gene family found in most vertebrates, playing an important role in immunity? Options

  1. A. Antigen-recognition molecules
  2. B. Major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)
  3. C. Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)
  4. D. Immunoglobulin
  5. E. Epitopes

Correct answer: B – Major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)

The MHC is a large gene complex found in most vertebrates that encodes proteins essential for adaptive immunity, including antigen presentation to T cells. HLAs are the human version of MHC, but MHC is the broader term applicable to all vertebrates. ---

Q6: T cells are made in the and complete their differentiation in the . Options

  1. A. Spleen; Thyroid
  2. B. Spleen; Thymus
  3. C. Bone marrow; Thyroid
  4. D. Bone marrow; Thymus
  5. E. Bone marrow; Thalamus

Correct answer: D – Bone marrow; Thymus

All blood cells, including T cell precursors, originate in the bone marrow. T cells then migrate to the thymus where they undergo selection and maturation processes to become functional T lymphocytes. ---

Q7: Which of the following is a transmembrane glycoprotein that serves as a co-receptor for the T cell receptor (TCR), and is also known as a cytotoxic T cell (CTL)? Options

  1. A. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
  2. B. Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
  3. C. Plasma cells (activated B cells)
  4. D. Activated T cells
  5. E. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: B – Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)

CD8+ T cells are cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) that express the CD8 co-receptor, which binds to MHC class I molecules. These cells are responsible for killing infected or abnormal cells. ---

Q8: Which of the following produce large amounts of antibodies (Igs) and differentiate upon stimulation from CD4+ cells? Options

  1. A. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
  2. B. Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
  3. C. Plasma cells (activated B cells)
  4. D. Activated T cells
  5. E. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: C – Plasma cells (activated B cells)

Plasma cells are differentiated B cells that specialize in producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies. They develop from B cells following activation by antigens and helper T cells (CD4+). ---

Q9: Which of the following is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of T helper cells, regulatory T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells? Options

  1. A. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
  2. B. Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
  3. C. Plasma cells (activated B cells)
  4. D. Activated T cells
  5. E. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: A – Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)

CD4 is expressed on helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and various antigen-presenting cells. It serves as a co-receptor that binds to MHC class II molecules during antigen presentation. ---

Q10: Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is critical in uptake and presentation of antigen to T cells? Options

  1. A. Macrophage
  2. B. Dendritic cell
  3. C. B cell
  4. D. Memory cell
  5. E. Cytotoxic cell

Correct answer: B – Dendritic cell

Dendritic cells are the most potent antigen-presenting cells and are critical for initiating adaptive immune responses. They efficiently capture, process, and present antigens to naive T cells in secondary lymphoid organs. ---

Q11: Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) has immunoglobulin that functions as a receptor, then the antigen is internalized, degraded, and presented to T cells? Options

  1. A. Macrophage
  2. B. Dendritic cell
  3. C. B cell
  4. D. Memory cell
  5. E. Cytotoxic cell

Correct answer: C – B cell

B cells express membrane-bound immunoglobulins (antibodies) as their antigen receptors. When these receptors bind specific antigens, the antigen-antibody complex is internalized, processed, and presented on MHC class II molecules to T helper cells. ---

Q12: Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is specialized for degradation and presentation of particulate antigens to T cells? Options

  1. A. Macrophage
  2. B. Dendritic cell
  3. C. B cell
  4. D. T cell
  5. E. Natural Killer cell

Correct answer: A – Macrophage

Macrophages are particularly effective at phagocytosing and degrading particulate antigens, pathogens, and cellular debris. They then present processed antigens to T cells via MHC molecules. ---

Q13: Which of the following is NOT true regarding the complement system? Options

  1. A. They are serum proteins that form protein cascades, each activated component activating the next to generate a physiologic response
  2. B. They can bind to bacteria, making holes in their membrane
  3. C. They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells
  4. D. Binding of MBLs to a bacterial capsule triggers the complement cascade
  5. E. They help to eliminate immune complexes (antibody-antigen) and prevent them from damaging the body

Correct answer: C – They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells

Complement components attract phagocytes to foreign material and pathogens, but they should NOT attract phagocytes to healthy self-cells. The complement system is designed to distinguish self from non-self. ---

Q14: Which of the following has an immunoglobulin fold? Options

  1. A. BCRs
  2. B. TCRs
  3. C. MHCs
  4. D. BCRs & TCRs
  5. E. BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

Correct answer: E – BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

The immunoglobulin fold is a common structural motif found in the immunoglobulin superfamily, which includes B cell receptors (BCRs), T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules. ---

Q15: The genes encoding which of the following can undergo hypermutation to create receptors that are an even better fit for foreign antigens? Options

  1. A. BCRs
  2. B. TCRs
  3. C. MHCs
  4. D. BCRs & TCRs
  5. E. BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

Correct answer: A – BCRs

Only B cell receptors (antibodies) undergo somatic hypermutation in germinal centers to improve antigen binding affinity. TCRs and MHCs do not undergo this process. ---

Q16: The genes encoding which of the following are extensively polymorphic (have multiple alleles or forms of the same gene)? Options

  1. A. BCRs
  2. B. TCRs
  3. C. MHCs
  4. D. BCRs & TCRs
  5. E. BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

Correct answer: C – MHCs

MHC genes are the most polymorphic genes in the human genome, with hundreds of allelic variants. This diversity allows populations to present a wide variety of pathogenic peptides. ---

Q17: Each antibody molecule contains heavy chains and light chains. Options

  1. A. 1; 1
  2. B. 1; 2
  3. C. 2; 1
  4. D. 2; 2
  5. E. 2; 3

Correct answer: D – 2; 2

A typical antibody molecule has a Y-shaped structure consisting of 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains, connected by disulfide bonds. ---

Q18: Which of the following binds to an Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils? Options

  1. A. IgA
  2. B. IgD
  3. C. IgE
  4. D. IgG
  5. E. IgM

Correct answer: C – IgE

IgE binds to high-affinity Fc receptors (FcεRI) on mast cells and basophils. Cross-linking of bound IgE by allergens triggers degranulation and allergic reactions. ---

Q19: Which of the following is NOT involved in the antigen-antibody interaction? Options

  1. A. Electrostatic interactions between charged side-chains
  2. B. Hydrophobic interactions
  3. C. Van der Waals forces
  4. D. Hydrogen bonds
  5. E. Peptide bonds

Correct answer: E – Peptide bonds

Antigen-antibody interactions involve non-covalent forces like electrostatic interactions, hydrophobic interactions, Van der Waals forces, and hydrogen bonds. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds within protein structures, not between antigen and antibody. ---

Q20: This can complicate the treatment of bacterial infections in these patients because they are unable to take the antibiotics necessary to combat the infection. Options

  1. A. IgA
  2. B. IgD
  3. C. IgE
  4. D. IgG
  5. E. IgM

Correct answer: C – IgE

IgE-mediated allergic reactions to antibiotics (like penicillin) can prevent patients from taking necessary antimicrobial treatments, complicating the management of bacterial infections. ---

Q21: Which of the following is used to enumerate and/or separate live cells that express an antigen, sorted by applying an electric charge to the stained cells? Options

  1. A. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
  2. B. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)
  3. C. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)
  4. D. Western blotting (immunoblotting)
  5. E. Northern blotting

Correct answer: C – FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

FACS uses fluorescent antibodies to label cells and then sorts them based on their fluorescence properties using laser excitation and electrical charges to separate different cell populations. ---

Q22: Which of the following is a very sensitive and simple test for antigens, which uses a covalent complex of enzyme linked to antibody, to detect antigen directly or to bind antibody-antigen complex? Options

  1. A. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
  2. B. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)
  3. C. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)
  4. D. Western blotting (immunoblotting)
  5. E. Northern blotting

Correct answer: A – ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

ELISA uses enzyme-linked antibodies to detect antigens or antibody-antigen complexes. The enzyme catalyzes a color reaction that can be quantified, making it highly sensitive and widely used for diagnostic purposes. ---

Q23: Which of the following is used to characterize antigens in complex mixtures biochemically? Options

  1. A. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
  2. B. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)
  3. C. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)
  4. D. Western blotting (immunoblotting)
  5. E. Southern blotting

Correct answer: D – Western blotting (immunoblotting)

Western blotting separates proteins by gel electrophoresis and then uses specific antibodies to identify and characterize individual antigens within complex protein mixtures. ---

Q24: Which of the following uses ultraviolet (UV) light for examining specimens? Options

  1. A. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
  2. B. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)
  3. C. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)
  4. D. Western blotting (immunoblotting)
  5. E. Northern blotting

Correct answer: B – Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

Fluorescent antibody techniques use fluorochromes that are excited by UV light and emit visible light, allowing visualization of antigen-antibody binding under fluorescence microscopy. ---

Q25: is frequently found on the surface of B cells co-expressed with . These two classes are co-expressed not by class switching but by alternative processing of a primary RNA transcript. Options

  1. A. IgA & IgG
  2. B. IgD & IgM
  3. C. IgE & IgA
  4. D. IgG & IgM
  5. E. IgM & IgE

Correct answer: B – IgD & IgM

Mature naive B cells co-express IgD and IgM on their surface through alternative RNA splicing of the same primary transcript. Both have identical variable regions and antigen specificity. ---

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