Practice 50 MCQs on TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES & CELL CYCLE CONTROL MCQs with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts an...
Q1. What is the chromosomal location of the RB gene?
Answer: 13q14
Explanation: The RB gene, the first tumor suppressor gene to be discovered, is located at chromosomal locus 13q14.
Q2. According to Knudson's two-hit hypothesis, how many mutations are required to develop retinoblastoma?
Answer: Two hits (mutations) are required
Explanation: Knudson's two-hit hypothesis states that two hits are required to develop retinoblastoma - both copies of the RB tumor suppressor gene must be dysfunctional.
Q3. In familial retinoblastoma, what is the origin of the first hit?
Answer: One mutation is inherited (germline), second is somatic
Explanation: In familial cases, one hit (mutation) is inherited in the germline and the second hit develops when the normal Rb gene is lost by somatic mutation in retinoblasts.
Q4. What is the critical cell cycle checkpoint controlled by the RB gene?
Answer: G1/S transition
Explanation: The Rb gene exerts antiproliferative effects by controlling the G1/S transition of the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering S phase inappropriately.
Q5. In its active tumor suppressor form, what is the phosphorylation state of RB protein?
Answer: Hypophosphorylated
Explanation: In its active form, Rb is hypophosphorylated and binds to E2F transcription factor, preventing transcription of genes required for DNA replication like cyclin E.
Q6. What transcription factor does hypophosphorylated RB bind to?
Answer: E2F
Explanation: Hypophosphorylated Rb binds to E2F transcription factor, preventing E2F from activating transcription of genes required for cell cycle progression and DNA replication.
Q7. What percentage of tumors demonstrate biallelic loss of TP53?
Answer: 70%
Explanation: Approximately 70% of tumors demonstrate biallelic loss of TP53, highlighting its critical role as a tumor suppressor and "guardian of the genome."
Q8. Which syndrome is associated with germline mutation in one TP53 allele?
Answer: Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Explanation: Li-Fraumeni syndrome involves inheritance of one defective TP53 allele in the germline, with the second defect occurring in somatic cells, predisposing to multiple cancers.
Q9. What is p53 commonly referred to as due to its critical role in genomic stability?
Answer: Guardian of the genome
Explanation: p53 is called the "guardian of the genome" because it serves as the central monitor of cellular stress and can initiate responses to maintain genomic integrity.
Q10. Which stresses can activate p53 protein?
Answer: Anoxia, oncogene signaling, and DNA damage
Explanation: p53 is the central monitor of stress in the cell and can be activated by anoxia, inappropriate oncogene signaling, or DNA damage.
Q11. What mechanism activates p53 in response to DNA damage?
Answer: Phosphorylation
Explanation: DNA damage leads to activation of p53 by phosphorylation, which stabilizes the protein and activates its transcriptional functions.
Q12. What gene does activated p53 drive transcription of to cause G1-S cell cycle block?
Answer: CDKN1A (p21)
Explanation: Activated p53 drives transcription of CDKN1A (which encodes p21), a CDK inhibitor that prevents Rb phosphorylation, thereby causing a G1-S block in the cell cycle.
Q13. What is the purpose of the G1-S cell cycle block induced by p53?
Answer: To allow cells to repair DNA damage
Explanation: The pause in cell cycle progression allows cells time to repair DNA damage. If damage cannot be repaired, p53 then induces cellular senescence or apoptosis.
Q14. If DNA damage cannot be repaired, what outcomes can p53 induce?
Answer: Cellular senescence or apoptosis
Explanation: If DNA damage cannot be repaired despite the cell cycle pause, p53 induces either cellular senescence (permanent growth arrest) or apoptosis (programmed cell death).
Q15. How do oncogenic DNA viruses like HPV disable RB and p53 function?
Answer: By encoding proteins that bind to RB and p53
Explanation: Oncogenic DNA viruses like HPV encode proteins that bind to RB and p53, rendering them non-functional and allowing uncontrolled cell proliferation.
Q16. What percentage of pancreatic cancers have mutations in at least one component of the TGF-β pathway?
Answer: 100%
Explanation: In 100% of pancreatic cancers and 83% of colon cancers, at least one component of the TGF-β pathway is mutated, highlighting its critical role as a growth inhibitor.
Q17. In most normal epithelial, endothelial, and hematopoietic cells, what is the effect of TGF-β?
Answer: Potent inhibitor of proliferation
Explanation: In most normal epithelial, endothelial, and hematopoietic cells, TGF-β is a potent inhibitor of proliferation, transmitting antiproliferative signals.
Q18. What cellular process does TGF-β activate in late-stage tumors that promotes metastasis?
Answer: Epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT)
Explanation: In late-stage tumors, TGF-β signaling can paradoxically activate epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT), promoting migration, invasion, and metastasis.
Q19. What does TGF-β signaling activate that has growth-suppressing activity?
Answer: CDK inhibitors (CDKIs)
Explanation: TGF-β signaling leads to transcriptional activation of CDK inhibitors (CDKIs) with growth-suppressing activity, while also repressing growth-promoting genes like MYC and cyclins.
Q20. Which genes does TGF-β signaling repress?
Answer: MYC, CDK2, CDK4, and cyclins A and E
Explanation: TGF-β signaling represses growth-promoting genes such as MYC, CDK2, CDK4, and those encoding cyclins A and E, contributing to its antiproliferative effects.
Q21. What cellular behavior is abolished in cancer cells, allowing them to pile on top of one another?
Answer: Contact inhibition
Explanation: Contact inhibition is abolished in cancer cells, allowing them to pile on top of one another and continue proliferating despite cell-cell contact.
Q22. Which molecule maintains contact inhibition and is lost in malignant cells?
Answer: E-cadherin
Explanation: E-cadherin maintains contact inhibition, which is lost in malignant cells, allowing them to overcome this normal growth-limiting mechanism.
Q23. What protein does the NF2 tumor suppressor gene produce?
Answer: Neurofibromin-2 (merlin)
Explanation: The NF2 tumor suppressor gene produces neurofibromin-2 (merlin), which facilitates E-cadherin-mediated contact inhibition.
Q24. How does the APC gene exert antiproliferative actions?
Answer: By regulating destruction of cytoplasmic β-catenin
Explanation: The APC gene exerts antiproliferative actions by regulating the destruction of cytoplasmic β-catenin, preventing its nuclear translocation and transcriptional activity.
Q25. What happens when APC is mutated and lost?
Answer: β-catenin accumulates, translocates to nucleus, acts as growth-promoting transcription factor
Explanation: With APC mutation and loss, β-catenin is not destroyed, accumulates in the cytoplasm, translocates to the nucleus, and acts as a growth-promoting transcription factor.
Q26. What syndrome is associated with germline mutation of the APC gene?
Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Explanation: Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome involves inheritance of a germline mutation in the APC gene, with sporadic loss of the normal allele causing development of hundreds of colonic polyps at a young age.
Q27. What percentage of sporadic colon cancers show somatic loss of both APC alleles?
Answer: 70%
Explanation: Somatic loss of both alleles of the APC gene is seen in approximately 70% of sporadic colon cancers, demonstrating its importance in colorectal carcinogenesis.
Q28. What are the two main pathways that can initiate apoptosis?
Answer: Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
Explanation: Apoptosis can be initiated through extrinsic (death receptor) or intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathways, both resulting in activation of a proteolytic caspase cascade.
Q29. What regulates mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization in apoptosis?
Answer: Balance between pro-apoptotic (BAX, BAK) and anti-apoptotic molecules (BCL2, BCL-XL)
Explanation: Mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization is regulated by the balance between pro-apoptotic molecules (e.g., BAX, BAK) and anti-apoptotic molecules (BCL2, BCL-XL).
Q30. What is the role of BH3-only proteins in apoptosis?
Answer: Regulate balance between pro- and anti-apoptotic BCL2 family members
Explanation: BH3-only proteins (BAD, BID, and PUMA) regulate the balance between pro- and anti-apoptotic members of the BCL2 family, tilting it in favor of pro-apoptotic molecules to activate apoptosis.
Q31. How do BH3-only molecules activate apoptosis?
Answer: By tilting balance in favor of pro-apoptotic molecules
Explanation: BH3-only molecules activate apoptosis by tilting the balance in favor of the pro-apoptotic molecules, promoting mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization and caspase activation.
Q32. What is autophagy?
Answer: Stress-induced process where cells consume their own components
Explanation: Autophagy is a stress-induced process where cells consume their own components, which cancer cells may avoid through mutations or corrupt to provide parts for continued growth.
Q33. How can cancer cells manipulate autophagy?
Answer: Accumulate mutations to avoid it or corrupt it to support growth
Explanation: Cancer cells may accumulate mutations to avoid autophagy (which could lead to cell death), or may corrupt the process to provide cellular components for continued growth.
Q34. What happens to telomeres in normal cells with each cell division?
Answer: They shorten
Explanation: Telomeres shorten with each cell division in normal cells due to incomplete replication of chromosome ends, eventually activating cell cycle checkpoints leading to senescence.
Q35. What is the consequence of shortened telomeres in normal cells with intact checkpoints?
Answer: Senescence
Explanation: Shortened telomeres in normal cells with intact checkpoints eventually activate cell cycle checkpoints, leading to senescence and placing a limit on the number of divisions.
Q36. What happens when cells have disabled checkpoints and shortened telomeres?
Answer: Massive chromosomal instability and mitotic crisis
Explanation: In cells with disabled checkpoints, DNA repair pathways are inappropriately activated by shortened telomeres, leading to massive chromosomal instability and mitotic crisis.
Q37. How do tumor cells achieve immortality?
Answer: By reactivating telomerase
Explanation: Tumor cells reactivate telomerase, thus staving off mitotic catastrophe from critically shortened telomeres and achieving unlimited replicative potential (immortality).
Q38. What is the fundamental characteristic of tumor suppressor genes?
Answer: They apply brakes to cell proliferation
Explanation: The proteins encoded by tumor suppressor genes apply brakes to cell proliferation. Disruptions of such genes render cells refractory to growth inhibition.
Q39. How many copies of a tumor suppressor gene must be dysfunctional for tumor development?
Answer: Both copies must be dysfunctional
Explanation: Unlike oncogenes (which require only one mutated copy), both copies of a tumor suppressor gene must be dysfunctional for tumor development to occur.
Q40. What is the clinical consequence of heterozygosity at the RB locus?
Answer: Not neoplastic
Explanation: Heterozygosity at the Rb locus (one normal, one mutated allele) is not neoplastic. Both alleles must be lost for tumor development, illustrating the two-hit hypothesis.
Q41. What cancers besides retinoblastoma show homozygous loss of RB gene?
Answer: Multiple other cancers
Explanation: Homozygous loss or mutation of the Rb gene is seen in retinoblastoma and many other cancers, demonstrating its broader role as a tumor suppressor beyond its tissue of discovery.
Q42. Almost all cancers have a disabled G1 checkpoint due to what?
Answer: RB mutation or mutations affecting RB function (cyclin D, CDK4, CDKIs)
Explanation: Almost all cancers have a disabled G1 checkpoint due to either RB mutation or mutations in genes that affect Rb function, such as cyclin D, CDK4, and CDK inhibitors.
Q43. What is the relationship between TGF-β receptors I and II in signal transduction?
Answer: They form a complex upon ligand binding
Explanation: TGF-β regulates cellular processes by binding to a complex composed of TGF-β receptors I and II. Dimerization of the receptors upon ligand binding initiates the signaling cascade.
Q44. In sporadic retinoblastoma, what is the origin of both hits?
Answer: Both are somatic mutations in one retinoblast
Explanation: In sporadic cases, both normal RB alleles are lost by somatic mutation in one retinoblast, requiring two independent mutational events in the same cell.
Q45. What members of the BCL2 family are pro-apoptotic?
Answer: BAX and BAK
Explanation: BAX and BAK are pro-apoptotic members of the BCL2 family that promote mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, while BCL2 and BCL-XL are anti-apoptotic.
Q46. What members of the BCL2 family are anti-apoptotic?
Answer: BCL2 and BCL-XL
Explanation: BCL2 and BCL-XL are anti-apoptotic molecules that prevent mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization and inhibit apoptosis, opposing the actions of BAX and BAK.
Q47. What inevitably happens to polyps in familial adenomatous polyposis?
Answer: One or more evolve into colonic cancer
Explanation: In familial adenomatous polyposis, patients develop hundreds of colonic polyps at a young age, and inevitably one or more of these polyps evolve into colonic cancer.
Q48. Which genes does activated p53 control in response to stress?
Answer: Genes involved in cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, senescence, and apoptosis
Explanation: Activated p53 controls the expression and activity of genes involved in multiple protective responses: cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, cellular senescence, and apoptosis.
Q49. What is the functional consequence of RB binding to E2F?
Answer: Prevention of transcription of genes required for DNA replication
Explanation: When hypophosphorylated Rb binds to E2F transcription factor, it prevents E2F from activating transcription of genes required for DNA replication, such as cyclin E, thus blocking cell cycle progression.
Q50. What fundamental process in carcinogenesis involves failure of growth inhibition?
Answer: Insensitivity to growth inhibitory signals
Explanation: Failure of growth inhibition (insensitivity to growth inhibitory signals) is fundamental in carcinogenesis. Disruption of tumor suppressor genes renders cells refractory to growth inhibition and mimics growth-promoting effects.