Practice 50 MCQs on Medical Entomology Cat Practice with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.
Q1. A mosquito species that prefers to feed on humans indoors and rests inside houses after feeding would be classified as
Answer: Endophagic and endophilic
Explanation: Endophagic refers to feeding indoors, while endophilic refers to resting indoors after blood meal digestion. This combination makes a vector particularly dangerous for indoor transmission of diseases like malaria.
Q2. Which of the following best describes the strategy of zooprophylaxis in vector control?
Answer: Diverting vectors to feed on animals instead of humans
Explanation: Zooprophylaxis involves diverting zoophilic vectors away from humans by providing alternative animal hosts, thereby reducing human-vector contact and disease transmission.
Q3. The term "hemimetabolous" in reference to tick development means
Answer: Incomplete metamorphosis without pupal stage
Explanation: Hemimetabolous development is incomplete metamorphosis proceeding through egg, nymph, and adult stages without a pupal stage. This is seen in ticks, bedbugs, and cockroaches.
Q4. Nidicolous behavior in arthropod vectors refers to
Answer: Remaining close to the host's resting place
Explanation: Nidicolous behavior means the vector stays near the host's home or resting area. Soft ticks (Argasidae) exhibit this behavior, while hard ticks (Ixodidae) are non-nidicolous and move away from the host's dwelling.
Q5. Which characteristic distinguishes diurnal from nocturnal vectors?
Answer: Time of day when they are most active
Explanation: Diurnal vectors are active during the day (e.g., Aedes aegypti), while nocturnal vectors are active at night (e.g., Anopheles mosquitoes, cockroaches). This affects control strategies and personal protection measures.
Q6. A "questing behavior" in ticks refers to
Answer: Climbing vegetation and extending limbs to attach to passing hosts
Explanation: Questing is the characteristic behavior of hard ticks where they climb up vegetation and extend their forelegs to attach to warm-blooded animals that pass by. This is how they locate and attach to potential hosts.
Q7. In the context of vector-borne diseases, what does "mechanical transmission" mean?
Answer: The pathogen is physically carried by the vector without multiplication
Explanation: Mechanical transmission occurs when a vector carries a pathogen on its body parts (e.g., legs, mouthparts) without the pathogen undergoing development or multiplication in the vector. Houseflies mechanically transmit many pathogens.
Q8. The term "exophagic" describes a vector that
Answer: Feeds on blood outdoors
Explanation: Exophagic means feeding outdoors. This is important for vector control because exophagic vectors are less affected by indoor residual spraying (IRS) compared to endophagic vectors.
Q9. Trans-ovarial transmission in vectors refers to
Answer: Transmission from infected female to her offspring through eggs
Explanation: Trans-ovarial (vertical) transmission occurs when an infected female vector passes the pathogen to her eggs, resulting in infected offspring. This is seen in soft ticks transmitting Borrelia (relapsing fever).
Q10. Which of the following vectors exhibits incomplete metamorphosis?
Answer: Cockroaches
Explanation: Cockroaches, ticks, and bedbugs undergo incomplete metamorphosis (egg → nymph → adult) without a pupal stage. Mosquitoes and houseflies undergo complete metamorphosis (egg → larva → pupa → adult). --- ## SECTION B: COCKROACHES & BEDBUGS (Questions 11-16)
Q11. Which cockroach species is commonly known as the German cockroach?
Answer: Blattella germanica
Explanation: Blattella germanica is the German cockroach, one of the most common household pest cockroaches worldwide. Periplaneta americana is the American cockroach, and Blatta orientalis is the Oriental cockroach.
Q12. The primary medical importance of cockroaches includes all of the following EXCEPT
Answer: Biological vector of malaria
Explanation: Cockroaches are NOT biological vectors of malaria. They are mechanical vectors that transmit bacteria like E. coli and cause allergies through inhalation of their body parts and feces. Malaria is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes.
Q13. What is the rostrum count characteristic of bedbugs?
Answer: Five-segmented rostrum
Explanation: Bedbugs (Cimicidae) have a five-segmented rostrum (proboscis) used for piercing skin and taking blood meals. This is a key morphological feature for identification.
Q14. Bedbugs are primarily active during
Answer: Nighttime
Explanation: Bedbugs are nocturnal feeders with an aversion to light. They hide in cracks and crevices during the day and emerge at night to feed on sleeping hosts.
Q15. Which disease is mechanically transmitted by bedbugs?
Answer: Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
Explanation: Bedbugs can mechanically transmit Bacillus anthracis (anthrax). They are also associated with transmission of Borrelia (Lyme disease) and may transmit filarial nematodes.
Q16. Boric acid powder works as a cockroach control agent primarily through
Answer: Contact and stomach poison causing dehydration
Explanation: Boric acid acts as both a contact and stomach poison. It adheres to the cockroach's body, is ingested during grooming, and causes dehydration by damaging the exoskeleton and digestive system. --- ## SECTION C: FLIES - MUSCIDAE, FANIDAE & TABANIDAE (Questions 17-24)
Q17. Which housefly species is known as the "stable fly" and is a painful biter?
Answer: Stomoxys calcitrans
Explanation: Stomoxys calcitrans (stable fly) is a biting fly that takes blood meals and causes painful bites. Unlike the common housefly (Musca domestica), which only feeds on liquid organic matter, Stomoxys is a true biter.
Q18. Houseflies (Musca domestica) are primarily important as
Answer: Mechanical vectors carrying pathogens on body parts
Explanation: Houseflies are mechanical vectors that carry pathogens (bacteria, viruses, protozoa, helminth eggs) on their body parts, especially legs and mouthparts, contaminating food and surfaces without the pathogen multiplying in the fly.
Q19. Obligate myiasis differs from facultative myiasis in that obligate myiasis
Answer: Requires living tissue to complete the larval life cycle
Explanation: Obligate myiasis requires living tissue for larval development (e.g., screwworm flies). Facultative myiasis can occur in living or dead tissue. Accidental myiasis occurs when larvae are ingested by chance.
Q20. In maggot therapy using Lucilia sericata, the larvae are used to
Answer: Debride dead and necrotic tissue from wounds
Explanation: Sterile maggots of Lucilia sericata selectively feed on dead, necrotic tissue (debridement) while leaving healthy tissue intact. This cleans wounds and promotes healing, a practice called maggot debridement therapy.
Q21. Horse flies (Tabanidae) are primarily active during
Answer: Daytime, especially in bright sunlight
Explanation: Horse flies are diurnal (day-active) and prefer bright, sunny conditions. They are persistent biters and are attracted to movement and dark objects, making them particularly troublesome during daytime outdoor activities.
Q22. Which genus of horse flies is attracted by smoke?
Answer: Chrysops
Explanation: Chrysops (deer flies) are specifically noted to be attracted by smoke, unlike other Tabanidae genera. This is an unusual characteristic that can be important in certain environments.
Q23. Horse flies are involved in the mechanical transmission of all EXCEPT
Answer: Bacillus anthracis (Anthrax)
Explanation: Horse flies mechanically transmit anthrax, tularemia, and Lyme disease pathogens. Malaria is biologically transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes, not mechanically by horse flies.
Q24. UV light traps for housefly control work by
Answer: Attracting flies with UV light then electrocuting them
Explanation: UV light traps (insectocutors) attract flies using ultraviolet light, which flies find attractive. When flies approach, they are electrocuted by an electric grid, providing a non-chemical control method. --- ## SECTION D: TICKS - IXODIDAE & ARGASIDAE (Questions 25-34)
Q25. Hard ticks (Ixodidae) differ from soft ticks (Argasidae) in that hard ticks
Answer: Remain attached to hosts for longer periods (1-4 weeks)
Explanation: Hard ticks attach to hosts for extended periods (1-4 weeks) to feed. Soft ticks feed quickly (minutes to hours) and drop off. Hard ticks are non-nidicolous (move away from host's home), while soft ticks are nidicolous.
Q26. How many nymphal stages do hard ticks (Ixodidae) have?
Answer: One
Explanation: Hard ticks have only ONE nymphal stage (egg → larva → nymph → adult). In contrast, soft ticks have multiple nymphal stages, usually 4-5 nymphal instars.
Q27. Tick paralysis is caused by
Answer: Toxins in female tick saliva during prolonged feeding
Explanation: Tick paralysis results from neurotoxins in female tick saliva that are pumped into the host during the long feeding period. It causes ascending paralysis starting from the legs and can lead to respiratory failure, especially in children.
Q28. Which tick genus is classified as a one-host tick?
Answer: Boophilus
Explanation: Boophilus is a one-host tick where all stages (larva, nymph, adult) feed on the same individual host. Hyalomma is a two-host tick, while many other genera are three-host ticks.
Q29. The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi, which causes Lyme disease, is transmitted by
Answer: Ticks
Explanation: Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease, is transmitted by ixodid (hard) ticks, particularly Ixodes species. The disease is characterized by erythema migrans (bull's-eye rash) and can affect multiple organ systems.
Q30. Soft ticks (Argasidae) are described as nidicolous, meaning they
Answer: Stay close to the host's resting place
Explanation: Nidicolous behavior means soft ticks remain in or near the host's dwelling (burrows, nests, houses). They make short feeding visits and quickly return to hiding places near the host, unlike hard ticks which move away.
Q31. Trans-ovarial transmission in soft ticks is significant for which disease?
Answer: Tick-borne relapsing fever
Explanation: Soft ticks transmit Borrelia species (spirochetes) causing tick-borne relapsing fever. The bacteria can be passed trans-ovarially from infected females to their eggs, making the next generation of ticks infectious from birth.
Q32. The proper method for removing an attached tick involves
Answer: Applying petroleum jelly, waiting 3-5 minutes, then pulling slowly
Explanation: The correct method is to apply petroleum jelly (Vaseline) on the tick, wait 3-5 minutes for it to release or suffocate, then pull slowly to avoid leaving mouthparts embedded in the skin, which can cause infection.
Q33. Q fever, a zoonotic disease, is caused by which organism and transmitted by ticks?
Answer: Coxiella burnetii (bacterium)
Explanation: Q fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii and can be transmitted by ticks. It can also be transmitted through inhalation of contaminated aerosols from infected animals, particularly livestock.
Q34. In cattle dipping for tick control, which insecticide is commonly used due to its persistence?
Answer: Deltamethrin
Explanation: Deltamethrin, a Class II pyrethroid, is preferred for cattle dipping because of its persistence (long-lasting effectiveness). It remains effective on the animal's coat for extended periods, providing continued protection against ticks. --- ## SECTION E: CHEMICAL CONTROL - MODE OF ACTION (Questions 35-44)
Q35. Pyrethroid insecticides work by
Answer: Keeping sodium channels open longer causing hyperexcitation
Explanation: Pyrethroids target voltage-gated sodium channels (VGSCs) in nerve cells, preventing them from closing properly. This causes continuous sodium influx, leading to hyperexcitation, paralysis, and death of the insect.
Q36. The primary target of organophosphate and carbamate insecticides is
Answer: Acetylcholinesterase enzyme
Explanation: Both organophosphates and carbamates inhibit acetylcholinesterase (AChE), the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. This causes acetylcholine accumulation, leading to continuous nerve stimulation, hyperexcitation, and paralysis.
Q37. DDT was banned in Kenya primarily because
Answer: It persists in the environment and bioaccumulates
Explanation: DDT is a persistent organic pollutant that accumulates in the environment and food chain (bioaccumulation). Despite its effectiveness, its environmental persistence and potential long-term effects led to its ban in many countries, including Kenya.
Q38. Rotenone's mode of action involves
Answer: Inhibiting Complex I of the electron transport chain
Explanation: Rotenone inhibits Complex I in the mitochondrial electron transport chain, preventing electron flow and effectively shutting down cellular respiration. This depletes ATP production, leading to cell death and insect paralysis.
Q39. Nicotine extracted from tobacco plants works as an insecticide by
Answer: Mimicking acetylcholine and causing continuous stimulation
Explanation: Nicotine binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, mimicking the action of acetylcholine. This causes continuous stimulation of the nervous system, leading to paralysis and convulsions in insects.
Q40. Which insecticide class works by affecting the GABA-chloride channel complex?
Answer: Chlorinated alicyclics (organochlorines)
Explanation: Chlorinated alicyclic compounds (like chlorinated camphor) interfere with the GABA-A receptor-chloride channel complex, blocking chloride ion flow and disrupting neuronal inhibition, causing hyperexcitation.
Q41. Ryanodine receptors, targeted by the botanical insecticide ryanodine, are
Answer: Calcium channels in sarcoplasmic reticulum
Explanation: Ryanodine targets ryanodine receptors, which are calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle and nerve cells. It causes uncontrolled calcium release, leading to muscle overstimulation and paralysis.
Q42. The LD50 classification for insecticides with a value of 51-500 is labeled
Answer: Blue (moderately toxi
Explanation: The WHO classification uses color codes: Red (1-50, very toxic), Yellow (51-500, toxic), Blue (501-5000, moderately toxic), and Green ( 5000, low toxicity). This helps users understand the relative danger of pesticides.
Q43. Sabadilla alkaloids (veratridine and cevadine) kill insects by
Answer: Binding to sodium channels preventing closure
Explanation: Sabadilla alkaloids bind to voltage-sensitive sodium channels in insect nerve membranes, preventing them from closing. This causes continuous sodium influx and permanent depolarization, resulting in paralysis and death.
Q44. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS) is most effective against vectors that are
Answer: Endophagic and endophilic
Explanation: IRS is most effective against endophagic (indoor feeding) and endophilic (indoor resting) vectors because they come into contact with insecticide-treated walls. Exophagic/exophilic vectors spend less time indoors and are less affected. --- ## SECTION F: BIOLOGICAL CONTROL & INTEGRATED MANAGEMENT (Questions 45-50)
Q45. Gambusia affinis is used in biological control of mosquitoes by
Answer: Feeding on mosquito eggs and larvae
Explanation: Gambusia affinis (mosquito fish) is an effective biological control agent that feeds on mosquito eggs and larvae in water bodies, reducing mosquito populations without chemical insecticides.
Q46. The Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) controls vector populations by
Answer: Releasing sterilized males that mate unsuccessfully with wild females
Explanation: SIT involves mass-rearing vectors, sterilizing males (usually with radiation), and releasing them. When sterile males mate with wild females, no offspring are produced, leading to population decline over generations.
Q47. Wolbachia pipientis causes cytoplasmic incompatibility, which results in
Answer: Infected males mating with uninfected females producing non-viable eggs
Explanation: When Wolbachia-infected males mate with uninfected females, the embryos die (cytoplasmic incompatibility). This reduces population and Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes have reduced vector competence for arboviruses.
Q48. Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis (Bti) controls mosquito larvae through
Answer: Production of enterotoxins that paralyze and kill larvae
Explanation: Bti produces crystal proteins (Cry toxins) that are toxic to mosquito larvae when ingested. The toxins damage the midgut epithelium, causing paralysis and death. It's specific to Diptera larvae and environmentally safe.
Q49. Toxorhynchites (elephant mosquito) larvae are useful in biological control because they
Answer: Feed on other mosquito larvae
Explanation: Toxorhynchites larvae are predaceous and feed on larvae of other mosquito species, including disease vectors like Anopheles and Aedes. Adults don't take blood meals, making them ideal biological control agents.
Q50. The use of paratransgenic vectors in disease control involves
Answer: Modifying vector gut bacteria to express anti-parasite molecules
Explanation: Paratransgenesis involves genetically modifying symbiotic bacteria (like Sodalis in tsetse flies) that live in vectors to produce molecules that block parasite development, making the vector refractory (unable to transmit disease). --- ## ANSWER KEY Section A (1-10): B, B, B, B, B, B, B, A, B, C Section B (11-16): B, C, B, C, B, B Section C (17-24): C, B, B, C, C, B, D, B Section D (25-34): C, B, C, C, B, B, B, C, C, B Section E (35-44): C, B, B, B, C, C, B, B, B, B Section F (45-50): C, B, B, B, B, B --- ## SCORING GUIDE - 45-50 correct: Excellent - Well prepared for exam - 40-44 correct: Very Good - Minor review needed - 35-39 correct: Good - Review weak areas - 30-34 correct: Fair - Significant review needed - Below 30: Review all material thoroughly --- End of Examination Review your notes thoroughly, focusing on areas where you scored lower. Pay special attention to modes of action, disease transmission mechanisms, and vector control strategies.