Practice 37 MCQs on Medical Bacteriology And Parasitology End Year 2024/2025 with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key con...
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Q1. Fish are second intermediate hosts of?
- Echinostoma ilocaanum
- Hepatic fascia
- Fasciolopsis buski
- Hymenolepis nana
- Clonorchis sinensis ANSWER:
- Clonorchis sinensis EXPLANATION: Fish serve as the second intermediate host for Clonorchis sinensis (Chinese liver fluke). Humans get infected by eating raw or undercooked fish containing the parasite's metacercaria
Answer: Echinostoma ilocaanum
Explanation: Fish serve as the second intermediate host for Clonorchis sinensis (Chinese liver fluke). Humans get infected by eating raw or undercooked fish containing the parasite's metacercariae. ---
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Q2. Which of the following secretes defensive secretions to cause irritation on human skin?
- Millipedes
- Centipedes
- American killer
- Enterobius vermicularis
- All of the above ANSWER:
- Millipedes EXPLANATION: Millipedes have defensive glands that secrete irritating chemicals (benzoquinones, hydrogen cyanid
- causing skin burns and discoloration. Centipedes bite rather than secrete defensive substances. --
Answer: Millipedes
Explanation: Millipedes have defensive glands that secrete irritating chemicals (benzoquinones, hydrogen cyanide) causing skin burns and discoloration. Centipedes bite rather than secrete defensive substances. ---
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Q3. Holometabolous insects have?
- 2 life stages
- 3 life stages
- 4 life stages
- 5 life stages
- 1 life stage ANSWER:
- 4 life stages EXPLANATION: Holometabolous insects undergo complete metamorphosis with four stages: egg → larva → pupa → adult. Examples include mosquitoes, flies, and beetles. --
Answer: 2 life stages
Explanation: Holometabolous insects undergo complete metamorphosis with four stages: egg → larva → pupa → adult. Examples include mosquitoes, flies, and beetles. ---
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Q4. Which of the following transmits parasites for river blindness?
- Culex species
- Chrysops species
- Simulium species
- Toxorhynchitinae species
- All of the above ANSWER:
- Simulium species EXPLANATION: Simulium species (blackflies) are the vectors of Onchocerca volvulus, causing river blindness (onchocerciasis). They breed in fast-flowing rivers. --
Answer: Culex species
Explanation: Simulium species (blackflies) are the vectors of Onchocerca volvulus, causing river blindness (onchocerciasis). They breed in fast-flowing rivers. ---
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Q5. Which insecticide targets GABA in its action?
- DDT
- DEET
- Permethrin
- Bendiocarb
- Malathion ANSWER:
- Bendiocarb EXPLANATION: Bendiocarb is a carbamate insecticide that inhibits acetylcholinesterase, affecting GABA neurotransmission. DDT and permethrin target sodium channels instea
Answer: DDT
Explanation: Bendiocarb is a carbamate insecticide that inhibits acetylcholinesterase, affecting GABA neurotransmission. DDT and permethrin target sodium channels instead. ---
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Q6. Presence of triatomine bugs could predispose the population to?
- Sleeping sickness
- Leishmaniasis
- Malaria
- Chagas disease
- River blindness ANSWER:
- Chagas disease EXPLANATION: Triatomine bugs (kissing bugs) transmit Trypanosoma cruzi, which causes Chagas diseas
- They defecate while feeding, and parasites enter through the bite wound or mucous membranes. --
Answer: Sleeping sickness
Explanation: Triatomine bugs (kissing bugs) transmit Trypanosoma cruzi, which causes Chagas disease. They defecate while feeding, and parasites enter through the bite wound or mucous membranes. ---
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Q7. People living in forested areas like Arabuko Sokoke are at a risk of?
- Sleeping sickness
- Leishmaniasis
- Malaria
- Encephalitis
- River blindness ANSWER:
- Leishmaniasis EXPLANATION: Forested areas harbor sandflies (Phlebotomus/Lutzomyia species) that transmit Leishmania parasites. Forest ecosystems provide ideal habitats for sandfly vectors and animal reservoirs. --
Answer: Sleeping sickness
Explanation: Forested areas harbor sandflies (Phlebotomus/Lutzomyia species) that transmit Leishmania parasites. Forest ecosystems provide ideal habitats for sandfly vectors and animal reservoirs. ---
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Q8. Which of the following insects are commonly found in Latin America?
- Glossina species
- Triatomine bugs
- Cimex species
- Chrysops species
- Steam bugs ANSWER:
- Triatomine bugs EXPLANATION: Triatomine bugs are endemic to Latin America where they transmit Chagas diseas
- Glossina species (tsetse flies) are found only in sub-Saharan Afric
Answer: Glossina species
Explanation: Triatomine bugs are endemic to Latin America where they transmit Chagas disease. Glossina species (tsetse flies) are found only in sub-Saharan Africa. ---
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Q9. Pruritus can be best diagnosed for?
- Sarcoptes scabiei
- Leptothrombidium species
- Blattella species
- Pediculus species
- Pthirus species ANSWER:
- Sarcoptes scabiei EXPLANATION: Sarcoptes scabiei (scabies mit
- burrows into skin causing intense pruritus (itching), especially at night due to mite activity and allergic reaction to mite proteins. --
Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei
Explanation: Sarcoptes scabiei (scabies mite) burrows into skin causing intense pruritus (itching), especially at night due to mite activity and allergic reaction to mite proteins. ---
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Q10. If you found lice eggs (nits) in someone's clothing, what species would they most likely be from?
- Crab lice
- Pediculus humanus
- Pediculus capitis
- Pthirus species
- All of the above ANSWER:
- Pediculus humanus EXPLANATION: Pediculus humanus (body lic
- live and lay eggs in clothing seams, not on the body. Pediculus capitis (head lic
- attach eggs to hair shafts, not clothing. --
Answer: Crab lice
Explanation: Pediculus humanus (body lice) live and lay eggs in clothing seams, not on the body. Pediculus capitis (head lice) attach eggs to hair shafts, not clothing. ---
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Q11. Which of the following is odd one out in terms of transmission?
- Vibrio cholerae
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Rotavirus
- Thelazia species
- None of the above ANSWER:
- Thelazia species EXPLANATION: Thelazia species (eye worm) is transmitted by flies (mechanical vectors), while the others are transmitted via fecal-oral route through contaminated water/foo
Answer: Vibrio cholerae
Explanation: Thelazia species (eye worm) is transmitted by flies (mechanical vectors), while the others are transmitted via fecal-oral route through contaminated water/food. ---
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Q12. Which one of the following is larviparous?
- Phlebotomus species
- Lutzomyia species
- Triatomine bugs
- Glossina gambiense
- Dermacentor species ANSWER:
- Glossina gambiense EXPLANATION: Glossina species (tsetse flies) are larviparous - they give birth to live larvae rather than laying eggs. The larva immediately pupates after birth. --
Answer: Phlebotomus species
Explanation: Glossina species (tsetse flies) are larviparous - they give birth to live larvae rather than laying eggs. The larva immediately pupates after birth. ---
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Q13. Argasid ticks have?
- One host
- Two hosts
- Three hosts
- Multiple hosts
- Four hosts ANSWER:
- Multiple hosts EXPLANATION: Argasid (soft) ticks are multi-host ticks that feed quickly (minutes to hours) on different hosts throughout their life stages, unlike ixodid ticks. --
Answer: One host
Explanation: Argasid (soft) ticks are multi-host ticks that feed quickly (minutes to hours) on different hosts throughout their life stages, unlike ixodid ticks. ---
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Q14. Ixodid ticks have nymphal stages.
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- Multiple ANSWER:
- One EXPLANATION: Ixodid (har
- ticks have a single nymphal stage in their life cycle: egg → larva → nymph → adult. This is standard for hard ticks. --
Answer: One
Explanation: Ixodid (hard) ticks have a single nymphal stage in their life cycle: egg → larva → nymph → adult. This is standard for hard ticks. ---
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Q15. Traps for Aedes mosquitoes are composed of?
- Black and white colors
- Black and blue colors
- White and blue colors
- White only
- Black only ANSWER:
- Black and white colors EXPLANATION: Aedes mosquitoes are attracted to contrasting black and white patterns. Ovitraps and BG-Sentinel traps use this color combination for effective Aedes surveillance and control. --
Answer: Black and white colors
Explanation: Aedes mosquitoes are attracted to contrasting black and white patterns. Ovitraps and BG-Sentinel traps use this color combination for effective Aedes surveillance and control. ---
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Q16. Traps for Glossina species are composed of?
- Black and white colors
- Black and blue colors
- White and blue colors
- White only
- Black only ANSWER:
- Black and blue colors EXPLANATION: Tsetse flies (Glossina species) are attracted to black and blue colors. Biconical traps and targets use these colors for effective tsetse fly control. --
Answer: Black and white colors
Explanation: Tsetse flies (Glossina species) are attracted to black and blue colors. Biconical traps and targets use these colors for effective tsetse fly control. ---
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Q17. Black water disease is due to presence of in the environment.
- Simulium species
- Anopheles species
- Culicoides species
- Lutzomyia species
- Musca species ANSWER:
- Anopheles species EXPLANATION: Blackwater fever is a severe complication of falciparum malaria (transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes), characterized by massive intravascular hemolysis causing dark urin
Answer: Simulium species
Explanation: Blackwater fever is a severe complication of falciparum malaria (transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes), characterized by massive intravascular hemolysis causing dark urine. ---
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Q18. Hepatitis B virus has been associated with?
- Cimex species
- Xenopsylla species
- Pthirus species
- Tabanids species
- Steam bugs ANSWER:
- Cimex species EXPLANATION: Cimex species (bed bugs) have been studied for potential mechanical transmission of Hepatitis B virus, though their role remains controversial and not definitively proven. --
Answer: Cimex species
Explanation: Cimex species (bed bugs) have been studied for potential mechanical transmission of Hepatitis B virus, though their role remains controversial and not definitively proven. ---
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Q19. Which of the following statements regarding vaccination for Bacillus anthracis is correct?
- It is routinely available for all citizens of the United States
- Recombinant vaccine trials have shown good safety and efficacy
- The current vaccine is well tolerated
- A single dose is adequate after exposure to spores
- Vaccination of animals is not useful ANSWER:
- Recombinant vaccine trials have shown good safety and efficacy EXPLANATION: Newer recombinant protective antigen vaccines have demonstrated good safety and efficacy in trials. The current AVA vaccine requires multiple doses and has tolerability issues. --
Answer: It is routinely available for all citizens of the United States
Explanation: Newer recombinant protective antigen vaccines have demonstrated good safety and efficacy in trials. The current AVA vaccine requires multiple doses and has tolerability issues. ---
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Q20. Lowenstein Jensen media is used to isolate?
- Streptococcus species
- Proteus species
- coli
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- None of the above ANSWER:
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis EXPLANATION: Lowenstein-Jensen medium is an egg-based selective medium specifically designed for culturing Mycobacterium tuberculosis and other mycobacteria, which grow slowly and require special nutrients. --
Answer: Streptococcus species
Explanation: Lowenstein-Jensen medium is an egg-based selective medium specifically designed for culturing Mycobacterium tuberculosis and other mycobacteria, which grow slowly and require special nutrients. ---
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Q21. All of the following statements regarding Clostridium perfringens are correct EXCEPT
- It produces an enterotoxin
- It produces a double zone of β-hemolysis when grown on blood agar
- Some strains are aerotolerant
- It is the most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea
- It can cause intravascular hemolysis ANSWER:
- It is the most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea EXPLANATION: Clostridioides difficile (not
- perfringens) is the most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhe
- perfringens causes food poisoning and gas gangren
Answer: It produces an enterotoxin
Explanation: Clostridioides difficile (not C. perfringens) is the most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea. C. perfringens causes food poisoning and gas gangrene. ---
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Q22. Motility of the bacteria can be observed by
- Hanging drop method
- Soft agar method
- Both "A" and "B"
- Pour plate method
- All the above ANSWER:
- Both "A" and "B" EXPLANATION: Bacterial motility is observed using hanging drop method (direct microscopic visualization) and soft agar method (growth pattern spreading from stab line). Pour plate is for colony counting. --
Answer: Hanging drop method
Explanation: Bacterial motility is observed using hanging drop method (direct microscopic visualization) and soft agar method (growth pattern spreading from stab line). Pour plate is for colony counting. ---
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Q23. Three months ago, a 53-year-old woman had surgery and chemotherapy for breast cancer. Four weeks ago, she developed a cough occasionally productive of purulent sputum. About 2 weeks ago, she noted a slight but progressive weakness of her left arm and leg. On chest examination, rales were heard over the left upper back when the patient breathed deeply. Neurologic examination confirmed weakness of the left arm and leg. Chest radiography showed a left upper lobe infiltrate. Contrast enhanced computed tomography showed two lesions in the right hemisphere. Gram stain of a purulent sputum specimen showed branching gram-positive rods that were partially acid fast. Which of the following organisms is the cause of this patient's current illness?
- Actinomyces israelii
- Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum
- Aspergillus fumigatus
- Nocardia farcinica
- Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae ANSWER:
- Nocardia farcinica EXPLANATION: The patient is immunocompromised (chemotherapy), has pulmonary infection with brain abscesses, and shows branching gram-positive rods that are partially acid-fast - all classic for Nocardia species, which disseminate to the brain. --
Answer: Actinomyces israelii
Explanation: The patient is immunocompromised (chemotherapy), has pulmonary infection with brain abscesses, and shows branching gram-positive rods that are partially acid-fast - all classic for Nocardia species, which disseminate to the brain. ---
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Q24. The drug of choice to treat this patient's infection (Question 23) is
- Penicillin G
- Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- Gentamicin
- Amphotericin B
- A third-generation cephalosporin ANSWER:
Answer: Penicillin G
Explanation: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is the first-line treatment for Nocardia infections. Treatment duration is prolonged (6-12 months) due to tendency for relapse. ---
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Q25. can cause food INTOXICATION?
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- coli
- Salmonella
- None above ANSWER:
- Staphylococcus aureus EXPLANATION: Staphylococcus aureus produces preformed enterotoxins in food, causing food intoxication (rapid onset 1-6 hours). Salmonella and
- coli cause food infection (longer incubation, bacteria must multiply). --
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus produces preformed enterotoxins in food, causing food intoxication (rapid onset 1-6 hours). Salmonella and E. coli cause food infection (longer incubation, bacteria must multiply). ---
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Q26. Helicobacter pylori possesses that helps to neutralize stomach acid (HCl).
- Coagulase
- Urease
- Hyaluronidase
- Catalase
- Lipase ANSWER:
- Urease EXPLANATION: H. pylori produces large amounts of urease enzyme, which converts urea to ammonia and CO2. The ammonia neutralizes gastric acid, creating a protective alkaline microenvironment around the bacterium. --
Answer: Coagulase
Explanation: H. pylori produces large amounts of urease enzyme, which converts urea to ammonia and CO2. The ammonia neutralizes gastric acid, creating a protective alkaline microenvironment around the bacterium. ---
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Q27. An 8-year-old boy develops a severe sore throat. On examination, a grayish exudate (pseudomembrane) is seen over the tonsils and pharynx. The differential diagnosis of severe pharyngitis such as this includes group A streptococcal infection, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, Neisseria gonorrhoeae pharyngitis, and diphtheria. The cause of the boy's pharyngitis is most likely
- A gram-negative bacillus
- A single-stranded positive-sense RNA virus
- A catalase-positive gram-positive coccus that grows in clusters
- A club-shaped gram-positive bacillus
- A double stranded RNA virus ANSWER:
- A club-shaped gram-positive bacillus EXPLANATION: The grayish pseudomembrane is pathognomonic for diphtheria caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is a club-shaped (coryneform) gram-positive bacillus. --
Answer: A gram-negative bacillus
Explanation: The grayish pseudomembrane is pathognomonic for diphtheria caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is a club-shaped (coryneform) gram-positive bacillus. ---
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Q28. The primary mechanism in the pathogenesis of the boy's disease (Question 27) is
- A net increase in intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate
- Action of pyrogenic exotoxin (a superantigen)
- Inactivation of acetylcholine esterase
- Action of enterotoxin A
- Inactivation of elongation factor 2 ANSWER:
- Inactivation of elongation factor 2 EXPLANATION: Diphtheria toxin inhibits elongation factor 2 (EF-2), blocking protein synthesis in host cells. This causes local tissue necrosis (pseudomembran
- and systemic effects on heart and nerves. --
Answer: A net increase in intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate
Explanation: Diphtheria toxin inhibits elongation factor 2 (EF-2), blocking protein synthesis in host cells. This causes local tissue necrosis (pseudomembrane) and systemic effects on heart and nerves. ---
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Q29. Which of the following aerobic gram-positive bacilli is modified acid-fast positive?
- Nocardia brasiliensis
- Lactobacillus acidophilus
- Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
- Listeria monocytogenes ANSWER:
- Nocardia brasiliensis EXPLANATION: Nocardia species are weakly (modifie
- acid-fast positive due to mycolic acids in their cell walls. This helps differentiate them from other gram-positive bacilli. --
Answer: Nocardia brasiliensis
Explanation: Nocardia species are weakly (modified) acid-fast positive due to mycolic acids in their cell walls. This helps differentiate them from other gram-positive bacilli. ---
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Q30. A 45-year-old fisherman embedded a fishhook into his right forefinger. He removed it and did not seek immediate medical therapy. Five days later, he noted fever, severe pain, and nodular-type swelling of the finger. He sought medical therapy. The violaceous nodule was aspirated, and after 48 hours of incubation, colonies of a gram-positive bacillus that caused greenish discoloration of the agar and formed long filaments in the broth culture were noted. The most likely cause of this infection is
- Lactobacillus acidophilus
- Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
- Listeria monocytogenes
- Rhodococcus equi
- Nocardia brasiliensis ANSWER:
- Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae EXPLANATION: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae causes erysipeloid in fishermen/meat handlers. Key features: violaceous lesions, greenish α-hemolysis on blood agar, and long filamentous forms in broth. Exposure history is characteristi
Answer: Lactobacillus acidophilus
Explanation: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae causes erysipeloid in fishermen/meat handlers. Key features: violaceous lesions, greenish α-hemolysis on blood agar, and long filamentous forms in broth. Exposure history is characteristic. ---
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Q31. A biochemical reaction that is useful in the identification of the causative agent of the infection in question 30 is
- Catalase positivity
- Acid fastness using modified Kinyoun stain
- Esculin hydrolysis
- Tumbling motility
- Production of H2S ANSWER:
- Production of H2S EXPLANATION: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces H2S (hydrogen sulfide), which is a key identifying biochemical test. It is catalase-negative, differentiating it from other gram-positive bacilli. --
Answer: Catalase positivity
Explanation: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces H2S (hydrogen sulfide), which is a key identifying biochemical test. It is catalase-negative, differentiating it from other gram-positive bacilli. ---
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Q32. A hospitalized patient who had an indwelling urinary catheter develops fever, chills, suprapubic pain and difficulty voiding 48 hours after the catheter is removed. His bladder appears obstructed, and he has white blood cells and bacteria on a urinalysis. Cystoscopy reveals a large bladder stone, and the urine culture grows greater than 10,000 CFU/ml of a short, irregular gram-positive rod. The most likely organism causing this infection is
- Corynebacterium urealyticum
- Nocardia brasiliensis
- Actinomadura
- Erysipelothrix ANSWER:
- Corynebacterium urealyticum EXPLANATION: Corynebacterium urealyticum is a urease-producing organism that causes alkaline-encrusted cystitis and bladder stone formation in catheterized patients. It's a fastidious, slow-growing coryneform bacterium. --
Answer: Corynebacterium urealyticum
Explanation: Corynebacterium urealyticum is a urease-producing organism that causes alkaline-encrusted cystitis and bladder stone formation in catheterized patients. It's a fastidious, slow-growing coryneform bacterium. ---
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Q33. Drug of choice for treatment of mycoplasma infection are
- Tetracycline
- Erythromycin
- A and B
- Penicillin ANSWER:
- A and B EXPLANATION: Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall, making penicillin ineffectiv
- Tetracyclines and macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin) are effective as they target ribosomes and protein synthesis. --
Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation: Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall, making penicillin ineffective. Tetracyclines and macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin) are effective as they target ribosomes and protein synthesis. ---
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Q34. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is via
- Lymphatics
- Arterial blood
- Cranial nerve
- None of the above ANSWER:
- None of the above EXPLANATION: Tetanus neurotoxin spreads via retrograde axonal transport through peripheral motor neurons to the spinal cord/brainstem, not through blood, lymphatics, or cranial nerves primarily. --
Answer: Lymphatics
Explanation: Tetanus neurotoxin spreads via retrograde axonal transport through peripheral motor neurons to the spinal cord/brainstem, not through blood, lymphatics, or cranial nerves primarily. ---
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Q35. Patient with presence of penile chancre should be advised by physician to
- Take rest at home
- To swab the chancre and culture on Thayer Martin agar
- Take gram staining of chancre fluid
- Repeat VDRL test in laboratory
- Perform dark field microscope for treponemes ANSWER:
- Perform dark field microscopy for treponemes EXPLANATION: Primary syphilis chancre requires dark-field microscopy to visualize motile Treponema pallidum spirochetes. Treponema cannot be cultured on routine media or Gram-stained effectively. --- ## SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (25 MARKS) Instructions: Answer ALL questions --
Answer: Take rest at home
Explanation: Primary syphilis chancre requires dark-field microscopy to visualize motile Treponema pallidum spirochetes. Treponema cannot be cultured on routine media or Gram-stained effectively. --- ## SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (25 MARKS) Instructions: Answer ALL questions ---
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Q36. Outline differences between toxic shock syndrome and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. (5 Marks) ANSWER: TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME (TSS): Causative Agent: - Staphylococcus aureus producing TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome toxin-1) or other enterotoxins Mechanism: - Superantigen-mediated massive T-cell activation - Systemic inflammatory response Clinical Features: - High fever ( 38.9°
- - Hypotension/shock - Diffuse erythematous rash (resembles sunburn) - Desquamation (especially palms/soles) 1-2 weeks later - Multi-organ involvement (≥3 systems) - Vomiting, diarrhea, myalgia Age Group: - Primarily menstruating women (tampon-associate
- - Any age with wound infections Diagnosis: - Clinical criteria (CDC case definition) - Blood cultures often negative - Detection of toxin-producing strains --- STAPHYLOCOCCAL SCALDED SKIN SYNDROME (SSSS): Causative Agent: - Staphylococcus aureus producing exfoliative toxins (ETA, ET
- Mechanism: - Exfoliative toxins cleave desmoglein-1 in skin - Causes intraepidermal splitting Clinical Features: - Fever (usually lower grad
- - Diffuse erythema starting on face, neck, flexures - Skin tenderness - Nikolsky's sign positive (skin sloughs with gentle pressur
- - Bullae formation and peeling (resembles scalded skin) - No mucous membrane involvement Age Group: - Primarily children <5 years (especially neonates) - Rarely adults (renal failur
- Diagnosis: - Clinical appearance - Skin biopsy shows intraepidermal split - Culture from primary site (not bloo
- --- KEY DIFFERENCES: --- ## SECTION C: ESSAY QUESTIONS (40 MARKS) # COMPLETE ESSAY QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWER POINTS
Answer: - Hypotension/shock - Diffuse erythematous rash (resembles sunburn) - Desquamation (especially palms/soles) 1-2 weeks later - Multi-organ involvement (≥3 systems) - Vomiting, diarrhea, myalgia Age Group: - Primarily menstruating women (tampon-associate
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Q37. ##### A 33-year-old indigent man comes to the emergency room of the county hospital. The emergency room nurse immediately notices that the man cannot open his mouth because of facial muscle spasms. The physician on duty detects right-sided face pain and trismus. She is able to ascertain from the patient that he has not been able to eat for two days because of jaw pain. Examination of his body shows necrotic, blackened areas on the bottom of his left foot. ###
- Based on these signs and the physical exam results, what organism has infected this man and what disease does he have? (4 Marks) ANSWER POINTS: Organism: *Clostridium tetani * - Gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic bacillus - Produces terminal spores giving "drumstick" appearance - Found in soil, dust, animal feces Disease: Tetanus (Lockjaw) - Caused by tetanospasmin (tetanus neurotoxin) - Clinical presentation confirms diagnosis: Trismus (lockjaw) - inability to open mouth - Facial muscle spasms (risus sardonicus) - Progressive muscle rigidity - Necrotic wound on left foot (portal of entry) --- ###
- What treatment should be provided? (2 Marks) ANSWER POINTS: Immediate Treatment: - Human Tetanus Immunoglobulin (HTIG) or Tetanus Antitoxin (TAT) Neutralizes circulating unbound toxin - Dose: 3000-6000 units ###
- What treatment should be provided? (2 Marks) - CONTINUED ANSWER POINTS: Immediate Treatment: - Human Tetanus Immunoglobulin (HTIG) or Tetanus Antitoxin (TAT) Neutralizes circulating unbound toxin - Dose: 3000-6000 units intramuscularly - Give immediately, don't wait for lab confirmation Antibiotics: - Metronidazole (first choic
- - 500mg IV every 6-8 hours for 7-10 days - Alternative: Penicillin G - 2-4 million units IV every 4-6 hours - Purpose: eliminate vegetative *
- tetani* cells, prevent further toxin production Wound Management: - Surgical debridement of necrotic tissue on left foot - Remove devitalized tissue (source of anaerobic environment) - Thorough wound cleaning and irrigation Supportive Care: - Muscle relaxants (benzodiazepines - diazepam) - Airway management/mechanical ventilation if needed - Quiet, dark room to reduce stimulation - Control of muscle spasms --- ###
- Should treatment have waited until the diagnosis was confirmed by laboratory results? Explain. (6 Marks) ANSWER POINTS: NO - Treatment should NOT wait for laboratory confirmation Reasons: 1. Clinical Diagnosis (2 marks) - Tetanus is primarily a clinical diagnosis - Classic triad present: trismus, risus sardonicus, muscle rigidity - Necrotic wound provides clear portal of entry - Clinical features are pathognomonic (characteristi
- - High index of suspicion based on presentation 2. Laboratory Limitations (2 marks) - Culture of *
- tetani* is difficult and unreliable Organism may not be isolated from wound (only 30% positive cultures) - Requires strict anaerobic conditions - Time-consuming (24-48 hours minimum) - No rapid diagnostic tests available - Serology not helpful in acute setting - Negative cultures do NOT rule out tetanus - Laboratory confirmation is retrospective, not therapeutic 3. Time-Critical Nature (2 marks) - Tetanus is a medical emergency - Toxin already bound to neurons CANNOT be neutralized - Progressive disease can lead to:Respiratory failure (laryngospasm, diaphragmatic spasm)
Answer: Based on these signs and the physical exam results, what organism has infected this man and what disease does he have? (4 Marks) ANSWER POINTS: Organism: *Clostridium tetani * - Gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic bacillus - Produces terminal spores giving "drumstick" appearance - Found in soil, dust, animal feces Disease: Tetanus (Lockjaw) - Caused by tetanospasmin (tetanus neurotoxin) - Clinical presentation confirms diagnosis: Trismus (lockjaw) - inability to open mouth - Facial muscle spasms (risus sardonicus) - Progressive muscle rigidity - Necrotic wound on left foot (portal of entry) --- ###