Medical Bacteriology And Parasitology End Year 2024/2025 | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 37 MCQs on Medical Bacteriology And Parasitology End Year 2024/2025 with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key con...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Fish are second intermediate hosts of?

    Answer: Echinostoma ilocaanum

    Explanation: Fish serve as the second intermediate host for Clonorchis sinensis (Chinese liver fluke). Humans get infected by eating raw or undercooked fish containing the parasite's metacercariae. ---

  2. Q2. Which of the following secretes defensive secretions to cause irritation on human skin?

    Answer: Millipedes

    Explanation: Millipedes have defensive glands that secrete irritating chemicals (benzoquinones, hydrogen cyanide) causing skin burns and discoloration. Centipedes bite rather than secrete defensive substances. ---

  3. Q3. Holometabolous insects have?

    Answer: 2 life stages

    Explanation: Holometabolous insects undergo complete metamorphosis with four stages: egg → larva → pupa → adult. Examples include mosquitoes, flies, and beetles. ---

  4. Q4. Which of the following transmits parasites for river blindness?

    Answer: Culex species

    Explanation: Simulium species (blackflies) are the vectors of Onchocerca volvulus, causing river blindness (onchocerciasis). They breed in fast-flowing rivers. ---

  5. Q5. Which insecticide targets GABA in its action?

    Answer: DDT

    Explanation: Bendiocarb is a carbamate insecticide that inhibits acetylcholinesterase, affecting GABA neurotransmission. DDT and permethrin target sodium channels instead. ---

  6. Q6. Presence of triatomine bugs could predispose the population to?

    Answer: Sleeping sickness

    Explanation: Triatomine bugs (kissing bugs) transmit Trypanosoma cruzi, which causes Chagas disease. They defecate while feeding, and parasites enter through the bite wound or mucous membranes. ---

  7. Q7. People living in forested areas like Arabuko Sokoke are at a risk of?

    Answer: Sleeping sickness

    Explanation: Forested areas harbor sandflies (Phlebotomus/Lutzomyia species) that transmit Leishmania parasites. Forest ecosystems provide ideal habitats for sandfly vectors and animal reservoirs. ---

  8. Q8. Which of the following insects are commonly found in Latin America?

    Answer: Glossina species

    Explanation: Triatomine bugs are endemic to Latin America where they transmit Chagas disease. Glossina species (tsetse flies) are found only in sub-Saharan Africa. ---

  9. Q9. Pruritus can be best diagnosed for?

    Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei

    Explanation: Sarcoptes scabiei (scabies mite) burrows into skin causing intense pruritus (itching), especially at night due to mite activity and allergic reaction to mite proteins. ---

  10. Q10. If you found lice eggs (nits) in someone's clothing, what species would they most likely be from?

    Answer: Crab lice

    Explanation: Pediculus humanus (body lice) live and lay eggs in clothing seams, not on the body. Pediculus capitis (head lice) attach eggs to hair shafts, not clothing. ---

  11. Q11. Which of the following is odd one out in terms of transmission?

    Answer: Vibrio cholerae

    Explanation: Thelazia species (eye worm) is transmitted by flies (mechanical vectors), while the others are transmitted via fecal-oral route through contaminated water/food. ---

  12. Q12. Which one of the following is larviparous?

    Answer: Phlebotomus species

    Explanation: Glossina species (tsetse flies) are larviparous - they give birth to live larvae rather than laying eggs. The larva immediately pupates after birth. ---

  13. Q13. Argasid ticks have?

    Answer: One host

    Explanation: Argasid (soft) ticks are multi-host ticks that feed quickly (minutes to hours) on different hosts throughout their life stages, unlike ixodid ticks. ---

  14. Q14. Ixodid ticks have nymphal stages.

    Answer: One

    Explanation: Ixodid (hard) ticks have a single nymphal stage in their life cycle: egg → larva → nymph → adult. This is standard for hard ticks. ---

  15. Q15. Traps for Aedes mosquitoes are composed of?

    Answer: Black and white colors

    Explanation: Aedes mosquitoes are attracted to contrasting black and white patterns. Ovitraps and BG-Sentinel traps use this color combination for effective Aedes surveillance and control. ---

  16. Q16. Traps for Glossina species are composed of?

    Answer: Black and white colors

    Explanation: Tsetse flies (Glossina species) are attracted to black and blue colors. Biconical traps and targets use these colors for effective tsetse fly control. ---

  17. Q17. Black water disease is due to presence of in the environment.

    Answer: Simulium species

    Explanation: Blackwater fever is a severe complication of falciparum malaria (transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes), characterized by massive intravascular hemolysis causing dark urine. ---

  18. Q18. Hepatitis B virus has been associated with?

    Answer: Cimex species

    Explanation: Cimex species (bed bugs) have been studied for potential mechanical transmission of Hepatitis B virus, though their role remains controversial and not definitively proven. ---

  19. Q19. Which of the following statements regarding vaccination for Bacillus anthracis is correct?

    Answer: It is routinely available for all citizens of the United States

    Explanation: Newer recombinant protective antigen vaccines have demonstrated good safety and efficacy in trials. The current AVA vaccine requires multiple doses and has tolerability issues. ---

  20. Q20. Lowenstein Jensen media is used to isolate?

    Answer: Streptococcus species

    Explanation: Lowenstein-Jensen medium is an egg-based selective medium specifically designed for culturing Mycobacterium tuberculosis and other mycobacteria, which grow slowly and require special nutrients. ---

  21. Q21. All of the following statements regarding Clostridium perfringens are correct EXCEPT

    Answer: It produces an enterotoxin

    Explanation: Clostridioides difficile (not C. perfringens) is the most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea. C. perfringens causes food poisoning and gas gangrene. ---

  22. Q22. Motility of the bacteria can be observed by

    Answer: Hanging drop method

    Explanation: Bacterial motility is observed using hanging drop method (direct microscopic visualization) and soft agar method (growth pattern spreading from stab line). Pour plate is for colony counting. ---

  23. Q23. Three months ago, a 53-year-old woman had surgery and chemotherapy for breast cancer. Four weeks ago, she developed a cough occasionally productive of purulent sputum. About 2 weeks ago, she noted a slight but progressive weakness of her left arm and leg. On chest examination, rales were heard over the left upper back when the patient breathed deeply. Neurologic examination confirmed weakness of the left arm and leg. Chest radiography showed a left upper lobe infiltrate. Contrast enhanced computed tomography showed two lesions in the right hemisphere. Gram stain of a purulent sputum specimen showed branching gram-positive rods that were partially acid fast. Which of the following organisms is the cause of this patient's current illness?

    Answer: Actinomyces israelii

    Explanation: The patient is immunocompromised (chemotherapy), has pulmonary infection with brain abscesses, and shows branching gram-positive rods that are partially acid-fast - all classic for Nocardia species, which disseminate to the brain. ---

  24. Q24. The drug of choice to treat this patient's infection (Question 23) is

    Answer: Penicillin G

    Explanation: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is the first-line treatment for Nocardia infections. Treatment duration is prolonged (6-12 months) due to tendency for relapse. ---

  25. Q25. can cause food INTOXICATION?

    Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

    Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus produces preformed enterotoxins in food, causing food intoxication (rapid onset 1-6 hours). Salmonella and E. coli cause food infection (longer incubation, bacteria must multiply). ---

  26. Q26. Helicobacter pylori possesses that helps to neutralize stomach acid (HCl).

    Answer: Coagulase

    Explanation: H. pylori produces large amounts of urease enzyme, which converts urea to ammonia and CO2. The ammonia neutralizes gastric acid, creating a protective alkaline microenvironment around the bacterium. ---

  27. Q27. An 8-year-old boy develops a severe sore throat. On examination, a grayish exudate (pseudomembrane) is seen over the tonsils and pharynx. The differential diagnosis of severe pharyngitis such as this includes group A streptococcal infection, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, Neisseria gonorrhoeae pharyngitis, and diphtheria. The cause of the boy's pharyngitis is most likely

    Answer: A gram-negative bacillus

    Explanation: The grayish pseudomembrane is pathognomonic for diphtheria caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is a club-shaped (coryneform) gram-positive bacillus. ---

  28. Q28. The primary mechanism in the pathogenesis of the boy's disease (Question 27) is

    Answer: A net increase in intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate

    Explanation: Diphtheria toxin inhibits elongation factor 2 (EF-2), blocking protein synthesis in host cells. This causes local tissue necrosis (pseudomembrane) and systemic effects on heart and nerves. ---

  29. Q29. Which of the following aerobic gram-positive bacilli is modified acid-fast positive?

    Answer: Nocardia brasiliensis

    Explanation: Nocardia species are weakly (modified) acid-fast positive due to mycolic acids in their cell walls. This helps differentiate them from other gram-positive bacilli. ---

  30. Q30. A 45-year-old fisherman embedded a fishhook into his right forefinger. He removed it and did not seek immediate medical therapy. Five days later, he noted fever, severe pain, and nodular-type swelling of the finger. He sought medical therapy. The violaceous nodule was aspirated, and after 48 hours of incubation, colonies of a gram-positive bacillus that caused greenish discoloration of the agar and formed long filaments in the broth culture were noted. The most likely cause of this infection is

    Answer: Lactobacillus acidophilus

    Explanation: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae causes erysipeloid in fishermen/meat handlers. Key features: violaceous lesions, greenish α-hemolysis on blood agar, and long filamentous forms in broth. Exposure history is characteristic. ---

  31. Q31. A biochemical reaction that is useful in the identification of the causative agent of the infection in question 30 is

    Answer: Catalase positivity

    Explanation: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces H2S (hydrogen sulfide), which is a key identifying biochemical test. It is catalase-negative, differentiating it from other gram-positive bacilli. ---

  32. Q32. A hospitalized patient who had an indwelling urinary catheter develops fever, chills, suprapubic pain and difficulty voiding 48 hours after the catheter is removed. His bladder appears obstructed, and he has white blood cells and bacteria on a urinalysis. Cystoscopy reveals a large bladder stone, and the urine culture grows greater than 10,000 CFU/ml of a short, irregular gram-positive rod. The most likely organism causing this infection is

    Answer: Corynebacterium urealyticum

    Explanation: Corynebacterium urealyticum is a urease-producing organism that causes alkaline-encrusted cystitis and bladder stone formation in catheterized patients. It's a fastidious, slow-growing coryneform bacterium. ---

  33. Q33. Drug of choice for treatment of mycoplasma infection are

    Answer: Tetracycline

    Explanation: Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall, making penicillin ineffective. Tetracyclines and macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin) are effective as they target ribosomes and protein synthesis. ---

  34. Q34. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is via

    Answer: Lymphatics

    Explanation: Tetanus neurotoxin spreads via retrograde axonal transport through peripheral motor neurons to the spinal cord/brainstem, not through blood, lymphatics, or cranial nerves primarily. ---

  35. Q35. Patient with presence of penile chancre should be advised by physician to

    Answer: Take rest at home

    Explanation: Primary syphilis chancre requires dark-field microscopy to visualize motile Treponema pallidum spirochetes. Treponema cannot be cultured on routine media or Gram-stained effectively. --- ## SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (25 MARKS) Instructions: Answer ALL questions ---

  36. Q36. Outline differences between toxic shock syndrome and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. (5 Marks) ANSWER: TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME (TSS): Causative Agent: - Staphylococcus aureus producing TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome toxin-1) or other enterotoxins Mechanism: - Superantigen-mediated massive T-cell activation - Systemic inflammatory response Clinical Features: - High fever ( 38.9°

    Answer: - Hypotension/shock - Diffuse erythematous rash (resembles sunburn) - Desquamation (especially palms/soles) 1-2 weeks later - Multi-organ involvement (≥3 systems) - Vomiting, diarrhea, myalgia Age Group: - Primarily menstruating women (tampon-associate

  37. Q37. ##### A 33-year-old indigent man comes to the emergency room of the county hospital. The emergency room nurse immediately notices that the man cannot open his mouth because of facial muscle spasms. The physician on duty detects right-sided face pain and trismus. She is able to ascertain from the patient that he has not been able to eat for two days because of jaw pain. Examination of his body shows necrotic, blackened areas on the bottom of his left foot. ###

    Answer: Based on these signs and the physical exam results, what organism has infected this man and what disease does he have? (4 Marks) ANSWER POINTS: Organism: *Clostridium tetani * - Gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic bacillus - Produces terminal spores giving "drumstick" appearance - Found in soil, dust, animal feces Disease: Tetanus (Lockjaw) - Caused by tetanospasmin (tetanus neurotoxin) - Clinical presentation confirms diagnosis: Trismus (lockjaw) - inability to open mouth - Facial muscle spasms (risus sardonicus) - Progressive muscle rigidity - Necrotic wound on left foot (portal of entry) --- ###

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