Pathology Continuous Assessment July 2021 – 25 MCQs | Kenya MBChB
25 Year 3: General Pathology exam questions on Pathology Continuous Assessment July 2021 for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written
This MCQ set contains 25 questions on Pathology Continuous Assessment July 2021 in the Year 3: General Pathology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.
Q1: Malignant neoplasms show all the following features EXCEPT:
- A. Disorganized cell structure
- B. Encapsulation
- C. Invasion of local and distant tissues
- D. Rapid, erratic growth
Correct answer: B – Encapsulation
Q2: ONE of the following cells have LEAST capacity for regeneration:
- A. Cardiac muscle
- B. Skeletal muscle
- C. Neuronal cells
- D. Liver cells
Correct answer: C – Neuronal cells
Q3: The following are mediators of inflammation EXCEPT:
- A. Interferons
- B. Prostaglandins
- C. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
- D. Myeloperoxidase enzyme
Correct answer: D – Myeloperoxidase enzyme
Q4: Metaplasia refers to:
- A. Irregular, atypical proliferative changes in epithelial or mesenchymal cells
- B. Loss of cell substance producing shrinkage of the cells
- C. Replacement of one type of adult cell by another type of adult cell
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C – Replacement of one type of adult cell by another type of adult cell
Q5: Metastatic calcification is associated with:
- A. Dead or dying tissues
- B. Atherosclerosis
- C. Abnormal calcium metabolism
- D. Damaged heart valves
Correct answer: C – Abnormal calcium metabolism
Q6: Which of these is an endogenous pigment:
- A. Melanin
- B. Coal
- C. Tattooing
- D. Lipid
Correct answer: A – Melanin
Q7: Phagocytes include the following EXCEPT:
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Osteoclasts
- D. Lymphocytes
Correct answer: D – Lymphocytes
Q8: Which of these is the commonest cause of infectious granulomas:
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Fungal infections
- C. Viral infections
- D. Toxins
Correct answer: A – Tuberculosis
Q9: The most common fixative used to preserve tissue in histopathology is:
- A. 10% Formalin
- B. Ethylene Glycol
- C. Haematoxylin
- D. 95% Ethanol
Correct answer: A – 10% Formalin
Q10: The following are oncogenic viruses in humans EXCEPT:
- A. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
- B. Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)
- C. Hepatitis B virus
- D. Polio Virus
Correct answer: D – Polio Virus
Q11: RB gene, 'the guardian of the genome' regulates the cell cycle at:
- A. G1/S Checkpoint
- B. G2 Checkpoint
- C. G0 restriction checkpoint
- D. Intra-S Checkpoint
Correct answer: A – G1/S Checkpoint
Q12: TP53 is regulated and scavenged after completing its action by:
- A. CDKN1A
- B. MDM2
- C. RAS
- D. E6
Correct answer: B – MDM2
Q13: Mutations in the TGF-Beta signaling pathway involving SMAD molecules usually result in the following type of cancer:
- A. Colon Cancer
- B. Stomach Cancer
- C. Lung Cancer
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: D – Pancreatic cancer
Q14: The most commonly mutated oncoprotein in all tumors and a key participant in abnormal signal transduction pathways is:
- A. APC
- B. TP53
- C. BRAF
- D. RAS
Correct answer: D – RAS
Q15: The 'Warburg' effect in tumor cellular metabolism refers to:
- A. Oxidative phosphorylation in tumor cells
- B. Aerobic glycolysis in tumor cells
- C. Mutations and defects in enzymes that regulate the Krebs cycle
- D. Defective Mitochondrial ATP synthesis
Correct answer: B – Aerobic glycolysis in tumor cells
Q16: A Granuloma is comprised of:
- A. Fibroblasts and capillaries
- B. Capillaries and giant cells
- C. Endothelial cells and neutrophils
- D. Central necrotic area, epithelioid cells and lymphocytes
Correct answer: D – Central necrotic area, epithelioid cells and lymphocytes
Q17: During autopsy ONE of the following is NOT the role of the medical officer:
- A. Identify the decedent
- B. Ascertain the cause of death
- C. Document evidence
- D. Request for autopsy
Correct answer: D – Request for autopsy
Q18: The postmortem interval can be estimated using the below EXCEPT:
- A. Rigor Mortis
- B. Algor Mortis
- C. Mummification
- D. Cadaveric spasms
Correct answer: D – Cadaveric spasms
Q19: Exhumation of human remains may ONLY proceed on the authority of:
- A. Valid Court Orders
- B. The National Police Service
- C. The Chief Government Pathologist
- D. The Medical Superintendent
Correct answer: A – Valid Court Orders
Q20: The following are chemical mediators of acute inflammation EXCEPT:
- A. Leukotrienes
- B. Complement proteins
- C. Interleukins
- D. Hormones
Correct answer: D – Hormones
Q21: The characteristic cells of chronic inflammation are all EXCEPT:
- A. Plasma cells
- B. Macrophages
- C. Lymphocytes
- D. Polymorphonuclear Cells (PMNs)
Correct answer: D – Polymorphonuclear Cells (PMNs)
Q22: Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathologic assessment of tumours:
- A. Grading is the degree of macroscopic and microscopic differentiation
- B. Staging is the extent of spread of tumours
- C. TNM and AJCC systems can be used for staging malignant tumours
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D – All of the above
Q23: Complications of cutaneous wound healing include ONE of the following:
- A. Wound dehiscence
- B. Ulceration
- C. Formation of contractures
- D. Deficient scar formation
Correct answer: A – Wound dehiscence
Q24: ONE of the following statements is TRUE:
- A. Large cutaneous wounds heal by first intention
- B. Hormones such as glucocorticoids inhibit collagen synthesis
- C. Defective inflammation may cause increased susceptibility to infection
- D. Atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory process
Correct answer: D – Atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory process
Q25: The following statements are TRUE of ischaemia:
- A. Results from critical lack of blood supply to an area
- B. May occur in atherosclerosis
- C. May be reversible when blood supply is restored
- D. All the above
- E. All the above SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Correct answer: D – All the above
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