Immunology Quiz | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 59 MCQs on Immunology Quiz with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. The immune system uses as well as molecules (e.g. complement components). The immune system uses as well as antigen recognition molecules. Options

    Answer: Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes

    Explanation: The innate immune system primarily uses phagocytes (like macrophages and neutrophils) along with complement components for immediate defense. The adaptive immune system uses lymphocytes (T and B cells) along with specific antigen recognition molecules like antibodies and T cell receptors. ---

  2. Q2. Phagocytic white cells (leukocytes, e.g. macrophages) congregate within when foreign organisms get through a cut in the skin. Options

    Answer: Minutes

    Explanation: Phagocytic cells like neutrophils and macrophages respond to tissue damage and infection within minutes through chemotactic signals. This rapid response is characteristic of the innate immune system's immediate defense mechanism. ---

  3. Q3. Which of the following mediates an early response to viral infections by the innate immune system? Options

    Answer: Interferons

    Explanation: Interferons are proteins produced by virus-infected cells that provide immediate antiviral protection by inhibiting viral replication in neighboring cells. They are a key component of the innate immune response to viral infections. ---

  4. Q4. Which of the following is a messenger that mediates the connection between the innate and adaptive immune systems? Options

    Answer: Cytokines

    Explanation: Cytokines are signaling molecules that facilitate communication between different immune cells and coordinate both innate and adaptive immune responses. They act as messengers that bridge these two immune systems. ---

  5. Q5. Which of the following immune system components would NOT recognize a macromolecule epitope (binding site)? Options

    Answer: Phagocyte

    Explanation: Phagocytes recognize general pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) rather than specific epitopes. T cells, B cells, antibodies, and NK cells all have mechanisms for recognizing specific molecular structures or epitopes. ---

  6. Q6. Which of the following is a large genomic region or gene family found in most vertebrates, playing an important role in immunity? Options

    Answer: Major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)

    Explanation: The MHC is a large gene complex found in most vertebrates that encodes proteins essential for adaptive immunity, including antigen presentation to T cells. HLAs are the human version of MHC, but MHC is the broader term applicable to all vertebrates. ---

  7. Q7. T cells are made in the and complete their differentiation in the . Options

    Answer: Bone marrow; Thymus

    Explanation: All blood cells, including T cell precursors, originate in the bone marrow. T cells then migrate to the thymus where they undergo selection and maturation processes to become functional T lymphocytes. ---

  8. Q8. Which of the following is a transmembrane glycoprotein that serves as a co-receptor for the T cell receptor (TCR), and is also known as a cytotoxic T cell (CTL)? Options

    Answer: Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)

    Explanation: CD8+ T cells are cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) that express the CD8 co-receptor, which binds to MHC class I molecules. These cells are responsible for killing infected or abnormal cells. ---

  9. Q9. Which of the following produce large amounts of antibodies (Igs) and differentiate upon stimulation from CD4+ cells? Options

    Answer: Plasma cells (activated B cells)

    Explanation: Plasma cells are differentiated B cells that specialize in producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies. They develop from B cells following activation by antigens and helper T cells (CD4+). ---

  10. Q10. Which of the following is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of T helper cells, regulatory T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells? Options

    Answer: Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)

    Explanation: CD4 is expressed on helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and various antigen-presenting cells. It serves as a co-receptor that binds to MHC class II molecules during antigen presentation. ---

  11. Q11. What stage of an adaptive immune response involves secretion of antibody from a large plasma cell with extensive endoplasmic reticulum? Options

    Answer: Effector phase

    Explanation: The effector phase is when activated immune cells perform their functions. Plasma cells with extensive ER actively synthesize and secrete antibodies during this phase, which is the functional output of the adaptive immune response. ---

  12. Q12. Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is critical in uptake and presentation of antigen to T cells? Options

    Answer: Dendritic cell

    Explanation: Dendritic cells are the most potent antigen-presenting cells and are critical for initiating adaptive immune responses. They efficiently capture, process, and present antigens to naive T cells in secondary lymphoid organs. ---

  13. Q13. Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) has immunoglobulin that functions as a receptor, then the antigen is internalized, degraded, and presented to T cells? Options

    Answer: B cell

    Explanation: B cells express membrane-bound immunoglobulins (antibodies) as their antigen receptors. When these receptors bind specific antigens, the antigen-antibody complex is internalized, processed, and presented on MHC class II molecules to T helper cells. ---

  14. Q14. Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is specialized for degradation and presentation of particulate antigens to T cells? Options

    Answer: Macrophage

    Explanation: Macrophages are particularly effective at phagocytosing and degrading particulate antigens, pathogens, and cellular debris. They then present processed antigens to T cells via MHC molecules. ---

  15. Q15. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the complement system? Options

    Answer: They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells

    Explanation: Complement components attract phagocytes to foreign material and pathogens, but they should NOT attract phagocytes to healthy self-cells. The complement system is designed to distinguish self from non-self. ---

  16. Q16. Which of the following key components of the complement pathway can be activated by the lectin, classical, and alternative pathways? Options

    Answer: Its cleavage is essential for all complement functions. --

    Explanation: C3 is the central component where all three complement activation pathways (classical, alternative, and lectin) converge. Its cleavage is essential for all complement functions. ---

  17. Q17. Which of the following has an immunoglobulin fold? Options

    Answer: BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

    Explanation: The immunoglobulin fold is a common structural motif found in the immunoglobulin superfamily, which includes B cell receptors (BCRs), T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules. ---

  18. Q18. The genes encoding which of the following can undergo hypermutation to create receptors that are an even better fit for foreign antigens? Options

    Answer: BCRs

    Explanation: Only B cell receptors (antibodies) undergo somatic hypermutation in germinal centers to improve antigen binding affinity. TCRs and MHCs do not undergo this process. ---

  19. Q19. The genes encoding which of the following are extensively polymorphic (have multiple alleles or forms of the same gene)? Options

    Answer: MHCs

    Explanation: MHC genes are the most polymorphic genes in the human genome, with hundreds of allelic variants. This diversity allows populations to present a wide variety of pathogenic peptides. ---

  20. Q20. The aim of monoclonal antibody production is to produce cells that only secrete immunoglobulin directed against the antigen used in immunization. Which of the following hybridoma production steps is NOT correct? Options

    Answer: The cells are cultured in a selective medium allowing fused and non-fused cells to survive

    Explanation: The selective medium (HAT medium) is designed to kill unfused cells and allow only successfully fused hybridoma cells to survive. Non-fused cells should NOT survive in this medium. ---

  21. Q21. Each antibody molecule contains heavy chains and light chains. Options

    Answer: 2; 2

    Explanation: A typical antibody molecule has a Y-shaped structure consisting of 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains, connected by disulfide bonds. ---

  22. Q22. Which of the following is the main immunoglobulin in the gut and secretions (saliva, milk, tears) and is important in mucosal immunity? Options

    Answer: IgA

    Explanation: IgA is the predominant antibody in mucosal secretions and provides the first line of defense at mucosal surfaces. It exists as secretory IgA (sIgA) in these locations. ---

  23. Q23. Which of the following binds to an Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils? Options

    Answer: IgE

    Explanation: IgE binds to high-affinity Fc receptors (FcεRI) on mast cells and basophils. Cross-linking of bound IgE by allergens triggers degranulation and allergic reactions. ---

  24. Q24. Which of the following is chiefly found on the surface of B cells as a receptor molecule and is involved in cell activation? Options

    Answer: IgD

    Explanation: IgD is primarily found on the surface of mature, naive B cells along with IgM. It serves as a B cell receptor and plays a role in B cell activation and tolerance. ---

  25. Q25. Which of the following is NOT involved in the antigen-antibody interaction? Options

    Answer: Peptide bonds

    Explanation: Antigen-antibody interactions involve non-covalent forces like electrostatic interactions, hydrophobic interactions, Van der Waals forces, and hydrogen bonds. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds within protein structures, not between antigen and antibody. ---

  26. Q26. Which of the following best describes cross-reactivity? Options

    Answer: When one antibody can bind with multiple antigens

    Explanation: Cross-reactivity occurs when a single antibody recognizes and binds to multiple different antigens that share similar epitopes or structural features. ---

  27. Q27. This can complicate the treatment of bacterial infections in these patients because they are unable to take the antibiotics necessary to combat the infection. Options

    Answer: IgE

    Explanation: IgE-mediated allergic reactions to antibiotics (like penicillin) can prevent patients from taking necessary antimicrobial treatments, complicating the management of bacterial infections. ---

  28. Q28. Which of the following is used to enumerate and/or separate live cells that express an antigen, sorted by applying an electric charge to the stained cells? Options

    Answer: FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

    Explanation: FACS uses fluorescent antibodies to label cells and then sorts them based on their fluorescence properties using laser excitation and electrical charges to separate different cell populations. ---

  29. Q29. Which of the following is a very sensitive and simple test for antigens, which uses a covalent complex of enzyme linked to antibody, to detect antigen directly or to bind antibody-antigen complex? Options

    Answer: ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

    Explanation: ELISA uses enzyme-linked antibodies to detect antigens or antibody-antigen complexes. The enzyme catalyzes a color reaction that can be quantified, making it highly sensitive and widely used for diagnostic purposes. ---

  30. Q30. Which of the following is used to characterize antigens in complex mixtures biochemically? Options

    Answer: Western blotting (immunoblotting)

    Explanation: Western blotting separates proteins by gel electrophoresis and then uses specific antibodies to identify and characterize individual antigens within complex protein mixtures. ---

  31. Q31. Which of the following uses ultraviolet (UV) light for examining specimens? Options

    Answer: Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

    Explanation: Fluorescent antibody techniques use fluorochromes that are excited by UV light and emit visible light, allowing visualization of antigen-antibody binding under fluorescence microscopy. ---

  32. Q32. Class switching (isotype switching) involves rearrangement of the V(H) exon to associate with a different C(H) exon at different times in the course of an immune response. The region of the antibody molecule is affected (changed) via class switching and, unlike somatic recombination, this process is antigen . Options

    Answer: Fc; Dependent

    Explanation: Class switching changes the constant (C) region which forms the Fc portion of the antibody, while keeping the variable region (and thus antigen specificity) the same. This process is antigen-dependent and occurs after antigen exposure. ---

  33. Q33. is frequently found on the surface of B cells co-expressed with . These two classes are co-expressed not by class switching but by alternative processing of a primary RNA transcript. Options

    Answer: IgD & IgM

    Explanation: Mature naive B cells co-express IgD and IgM on their surface through alternative RNA splicing of the same primary transcript. Both have identical variable regions and antigen specificity. ---

  34. Q34. If alternative processing uses the first polyadenylation site, then what type of heavy chain mRNA is derived? Options

    Answer: μ (mu)

    Explanation: When the first polyadenylation site is used in alternative RNA processing, the μ (mu) heavy chain mRNA is produced, resulting in IgM antibody production. ---

  35. Q35. If alternative processing uses the second polyadenylation site, then what type of heavy chain mRNA is derived? Options

    Answer: δ (delta)

    Explanation: When the second polyadenylation site is used in alternative RNA processing, the δ (delta) heavy chain mRNA is produced, resulting in IgD antibody production. ---

  36. Q36. Production of secreted antibodies (pAs site) involves a chain of amino acids with a stretch of charged (versus non-charged) amino acids at the terminus, in comparison to membrane bound antibody production (pAm site). Options

    Answer: Shorter; COOH

    Explanation: Secreted antibodies have shorter heavy chains at the COOH terminus with charged amino acids, lacking the transmembrane and cytoplasmic domains present in membrane-bound antibodies. ---

  37. Q37. In heterozygous individuals who have inherited two alternative forms of the constant region gene for IgG1, which of the following is true regarding the Ig expression by a particular B cell, according to allelic exclusion? Options

    Answer: It will contain only one of the types

    Explanation: Allelic exclusion ensures that each B cell expresses only one allelic form of immunoglobulin, either IgG1m(1) or IgG1m(2), but not both simultaneously. ---

  38. Q38. Protein and nucleic acid sequence data suggest the existence of how many hypervariable (hv) regions within the variable region of TCRs? Options

    Explanation: Like antibodies, T cell receptors have three hypervariable regions (CDR1, CDR2, and CDR3) in their variable domains that are responsible for antigen recognition. ---

  39. Q39. The biochemical structure of the T-cell receptor (TCR) of the αβ type (95% of human TCRs) is comparable to a immunoglobulin fragment, having very short cytoplasmic tails. Options

    Answer: Membrane-bound; Fab

    Explanation: TCRs are membrane-bound receptors structurally similar to the Fab portion of antibodies, containing variable regions for antigen binding but with very short cytoplasmic tails. ---

  40. Q40. Where are T cells generally found in the body (location of TCR rearrangement)? Options

    Answer: Thymus

    Explanation: T cell receptor gene rearrangement and T cell maturation occur in the thymus, where T cells undergo positive and negative selection processes. ---

  41. Q41. In comparison to αβ T cells, γδ T cells and are hypothesized to be a line of immune defense. Options

    Answer: Do not recognize peptide antigens by MHC; Primary

    Explanation: γδ T cells do not require MHC presentation of peptide antigens and can recognize antigens directly. They are considered part of the primary (innate-like) immune response. ---

  42. Q42. Which of the following best describes the location of the delta (δ)-chain locus in human T-cell receptors? Options

    Answer: Chromosome 7 within the alpha (α)-locus

    Explanation: The δ-chain genes are located within the α-chain locus on chromosome 7. During α-chain rearrangement, the δ-chain genes are deleted. ---

  43. Q43. Which of the following are located in chromosome 7 within human T-cell receptors? Options

    Answer: Alpha (α)-locus

    Explanation: The α-chain locus (which contains the δ-chain genes) is located on chromosome 7. The β-chain is on chromosome 7, and γ-chain is on chromosome 7. ---

  44. Q44. Comparing the arrangement of TCR genes and BCR genes, the chain is analogous to the heavy (H) chain and the chain is analogous to the light (L) chain. Options

    Answer: Beta; Alpha

    Explanation: In TCR gene organization, the β-chain is analogous to the immunoglobulin heavy chain (has V, D, and J segments), while the α-chain is analogous to the light chain (has V and J segments only). ---

  45. Q45. Which of the following TCR genetic chains contain D-segments, similar to immunoglobulin heavy chains? Options

    Answer: Beta (β); Delta (δ)

    Explanation: Both β and δ chains of TCRs contain D (diversity) segments in their gene structure, similar to immunoglobulin heavy chains, which contribute to receptor diversity. ---

  46. Q46. Which of the following TCR genetic chains contains V and J segments, similar to genes for immunoglobulin kappa and lambda light chains? Options

    Answer: Gamma (γ); Alpha (α)

    Explanation: The γ and α chains of TCRs contain only V and J segments (no D segments), similar to immunoglobulin light chains (kappa and lambda). ---

  47. Q47. The process used to increase antigen binding affinity is called somatic and occurs in cells but not cells. Options

    Answer: Hypermutation; B; T

    Explanation: Somatic hypermutation occurs in activated B cells in germinal centers to improve antibody affinity for antigens. T cells do not undergo this process. ---

  48. Q48. Which of the following is NOT true of T-cell receptors, when compared to immunoglobulin? Options

    Answer: After exposure to antigen, there is somatic hypermutation and class switching

    Explanation: TCRs do NOT undergo somatic hypermutation or class switching after antigen exposure, unlike immunoglobulins. TCRs maintain their original structure and specificity. ---

  49. Q49. The T cell-APC interaction is MHC -restricted, and the T cell-target cell interaction is MHC -restricted. Options

    Answer: CD4+; Class II; CD8+; Class I

    Explanation: CD4+ T cells interact with APCs via MHC class II molecules, while CD8+ T cells interact with target cells via MHC class I molecules. This reflects their different functional roles. ---

  50. Q50. Which of the following describes where class I MHC is found and not where class II MHC is found? Options

    Answer: All nucleated cells

    Explanation: MHC class I molecules are found on all nucleated cells, while MHC class II molecules are restricted to antigen-presenting cells (APCs) like B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages. ---

  51. Q51. Peptides antigens generated in the cytosolic compartment bind to MHC molecules for presentation to T cells. Peptide antigens generated in vesicles bind to MHC molecules for presentation to T cells. Options

    Answer: Class I; CD8+; Class II; CD4+

    Explanation: Cytosolic antigens (intracellular pathogens like viruses) are presented on MHC class I to CD8+ T cells. Vesicular antigens (extracellular pathogens) are presented on MHC class II to CD4+ T cells. ---

  52. Q52. In the processing pathway for extracellular antigens, synthesis of MHC class II and invariant chain (Ii) occurs in the . Options

    Answer: Endoplasmic reticulum

    Explanation: MHC class II molecules and the invariant chain are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum, where they assemble before being transported to endosomal compartments. ---

  53. Q53. The invariant chain the empty peptide-binding groove. After vesicle fusion, the invariant chain is and peptides can enter the . Options

    Answer: Blocks; Degraded

    Explanation: The invariant chain blocks the peptide-binding groove of MHC class II molecules to prevent premature binding. It is later degraded in endosomal compartments, allowing antigenic peptides to bind. ---

  54. Q54. In the processing pathway for intracellular antigens, the proteasome will viral protein molecules until peptides of residues are formed. Options

    Answer: Break down; 8-11

    Explanation: The proteasome degrades intracellular proteins into short peptides of 8-11 amino acid residues, which are the optimal size for binding to MHC class I molecules. ---

  55. Q55. The transporter associated with antigen presentation (TAP) the peptides to traverse the membrane bilayer of the endoplasmic reticulum and bind in the empty peptide-binding groove of nascent MHC molecules. Options

    Answer: Permits; Class I

    Explanation: TAP transporters allow peptides generated by the proteasome to enter the ER lumen where they can bind to newly synthesized MHC class I molecules. ---

  56. Q56. What is the major site for hematopoiesis, where all blood cells are formed? Options

    Answer: Bone marrow

    Explanation: The bone marrow is the primary site of hematopoiesis in adults, where all blood cell lineages including immune cells originate from hematopoietic stem cells. ---

  57. Q57. Regarding mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), which of the following is secreted by B cells across the epithelium? Options

    Answer: IgA

    Explanation: IgA is the predominant antibody secreted across mucosal epithelia, providing immune protection at mucosal surfaces as secretory IgA (sIgA). ---

  58. Q58. Where does a mature T cell encounter antigen for the first time? Options

    Answer: On an antigen presenting cell (AP

    Explanation: Mature T cells encounter antigens presented by APCs in secondary lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, spleen, MALT), where immune responses are initiated. ---

  59. Q59. Patients with MHC class II (or class I) antigen deficiency would exhibit which of the following? Options

    Answer: Persistent bacterial and viral infections

    Explanation: MHC deficiency severely impairs T cell function and antigen presentation, leading to persistent infections with bacteria and viruses due to inadequate adaptive immune responses. ---

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