Immunology Quiz – 59 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

59 Year 2: Cellular Immunology exam questions on Immunology Quiz for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written questions. Sample: The i

This MCQ set contains 59 questions on Immunology Quiz in the Year 2: Cellular Immunology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: The immune system uses as well as molecules (e.g. complement components). The immune system uses as well as antigen recognition molecules. Options

  1. A. Adaptive; Phagocytes; Innate; Lymphocytes
  2. B. Adaptive; Lymphocytes; Innate; Phagocytes
  3. C. Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes
  4. D. Innate; Lymphocytes; Adaptive; Phagocytes
  5. E. Innate; Lymphocytes; Adaptive; Memory cells

Correct answer: C – Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes

The innate immune system primarily uses phagocytes (like macrophages and neutrophils) along with complement components for immediate defense. The adaptive immune system uses lymphocytes (T and B cells) along with specific antigen recognition molecules like antibodies and T cell receptors. ---

Q2: Phagocytic white cells (leukocytes, e.g. macrophages) congregate within when foreign organisms get through a cut in the skin. Options

  1. A. Microseconds
  2. B. Seconds
  3. C. Minutes
  4. D. Hours
  5. E. Days

Correct answer: C – Minutes

Phagocytic cells like neutrophils and macrophages respond to tissue damage and infection within minutes through chemotactic signals. This rapid response is characteristic of the innate immune system's immediate defense mechanism. ---

Q3: Which of the following mediates an early response to viral infections by the innate immune system? Options

  1. A. Complement components
  2. B. Vaccines
  3. C. T and B lymphocytes
  4. D. Cytokines
  5. E. Interferons

Correct answer: E – Interferons

Interferons are proteins produced by virus-infected cells that provide immediate antiviral protection by inhibiting viral replication in neighboring cells. They are a key component of the innate immune response to viral infections. ---

Q4: Which of the following is a messenger that mediates the connection between the innate and adaptive immune systems? Options

  1. A. Complement components
  2. B. Vaccines
  3. C. T and B lymphocytes
  4. D. Cytokines
  5. E. Interferons

Correct answer: D – Cytokines

Cytokines are signaling molecules that facilitate communication between different immune cells and coordinate both innate and adaptive immune responses. They act as messengers that bridge these two immune systems. ---

Q5: Which of the following immune system components would NOT recognize a macromolecule epitope (binding site)? Options

  1. A. Phagocyte
  2. B. T lymphocyte
  3. C. B lymphocyte
  4. D. Antibody
  5. E. Natural killer cell

Correct answer: A – Phagocyte

Phagocytes recognize general pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) rather than specific epitopes. T cells, B cells, antibodies, and NK cells all have mechanisms for recognizing specific molecular structures or epitopes. ---

Q6: Which of the following is a large genomic region or gene family found in most vertebrates, playing an important role in immunity? Options

  1. A. Antigen-recognition molecules
  2. B. Major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)
  3. C. Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)
  4. D. Immunoglobulin
  5. E. Epitopes

Correct answer: B – Major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)

The MHC is a large gene complex found in most vertebrates that encodes proteins essential for adaptive immunity, including antigen presentation to T cells. HLAs are the human version of MHC, but MHC is the broader term applicable to all vertebrates. ---

Q7: T cells are made in the and complete their differentiation in the . Options

  1. A. Spleen; Thyroid
  2. B. Spleen; Thymus
  3. C. Bone marrow; Thyroid
  4. D. Bone marrow; Thymus
  5. E. Bone marrow; Thalamus

Correct answer: D – Bone marrow; Thymus

All blood cells, including T cell precursors, originate in the bone marrow. T cells then migrate to the thymus where they undergo selection and maturation processes to become functional T lymphocytes. ---

Q8: Which of the following is a transmembrane glycoprotein that serves as a co-receptor for the T cell receptor (TCR), and is also known as a cytotoxic T cell (CTL)? Options

  1. A. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
  2. B. Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
  3. C. Plasma cells (activated B cells)
  4. D. Activated T cells
  5. E. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: B – Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)

CD8+ T cells are cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) that express the CD8 co-receptor, which binds to MHC class I molecules. These cells are responsible for killing infected or abnormal cells. ---

Q9: Which of the following produce large amounts of antibodies (Igs) and differentiate upon stimulation from CD4+ cells? Options

  1. A. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
  2. B. Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
  3. C. Plasma cells (activated B cells)
  4. D. Activated T cells
  5. E. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: C – Plasma cells (activated B cells)

Plasma cells are differentiated B cells that specialize in producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies. They develop from B cells following activation by antigens and helper T cells (CD4+). ---

Q10: Which of the following is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of T helper cells, regulatory T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells? Options

  1. A. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
  2. B. Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
  3. C. Plasma cells (activated B cells)
  4. D. Activated T cells
  5. E. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: A – Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)

CD4 is expressed on helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and various antigen-presenting cells. It serves as a co-receptor that binds to MHC class II molecules during antigen presentation. ---

Q11: What stage of an adaptive immune response involves secretion of antibody from a large plasma cell with extensive endoplasmic reticulum? Options

  1. A. Cognitive phase
  2. B. Activation phase
  3. C. Effector phase
  4. D. Inhibition phase
  5. E. Reactive phase

Correct answer: C – Effector phase

The effector phase is when activated immune cells perform their functions. Plasma cells with extensive ER actively synthesize and secrete antibodies during this phase, which is the functional output of the adaptive immune response. ---

Q12: Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is critical in uptake and presentation of antigen to T cells? Options

  1. A. Macrophage
  2. B. Dendritic cell
  3. C. B cell
  4. D. Memory cell
  5. E. Cytotoxic cell

Correct answer: B – Dendritic cell

Dendritic cells are the most potent antigen-presenting cells and are critical for initiating adaptive immune responses. They efficiently capture, process, and present antigens to naive T cells in secondary lymphoid organs. ---

Q13: Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) has immunoglobulin that functions as a receptor, then the antigen is internalized, degraded, and presented to T cells? Options

  1. A. Macrophage
  2. B. Dendritic cell
  3. C. B cell
  4. D. Memory cell
  5. E. Cytotoxic cell

Correct answer: C – B cell

B cells express membrane-bound immunoglobulins (antibodies) as their antigen receptors. When these receptors bind specific antigens, the antigen-antibody complex is internalized, processed, and presented on MHC class II molecules to T helper cells. ---

Q14: Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is specialized for degradation and presentation of particulate antigens to T cells? Options

  1. A. Macrophage
  2. B. Dendritic cell
  3. C. B cell
  4. D. T cell
  5. E. Natural Killer cell

Correct answer: A – Macrophage

Macrophages are particularly effective at phagocytosing and degrading particulate antigens, pathogens, and cellular debris. They then present processed antigens to T cells via MHC molecules. ---

Q15: Which of the following is NOT true regarding the complement system? Options

  1. A. They are serum proteins that form protein cascades, each activated component activating the next to generate a physiologic response
  2. B. They can bind to bacteria, making holes in their membrane
  3. C. They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells
  4. D. Binding of MBLs to a bacterial capsule triggers the complement cascade
  5. E. They help to eliminate immune complexes (antibody-antigen) and prevent them from damaging the body

Correct answer: C – They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells

Complement components attract phagocytes to foreign material and pathogens, but they should NOT attract phagocytes to healthy self-cells. The complement system is designed to distinguish self from non-self. ---

Q16: Which of the following key components of the complement pathway can be activated by the lectin, classical, and alternative pathways? Options

  1. A. C1
  2. B. C3
  3. C. C5
  4. D. C7
  5. E. C9

Correct answer: B – C3

C3 is the central component where all three complement activation pathways (classical, alternative, and lectin) converge. Its cleavage is essential for all complement functions. ---

Q17: Which of the following has an immunoglobulin fold? Options

  1. A. BCRs
  2. B. TCRs
  3. C. MHCs
  4. D. BCRs & TCRs
  5. E. BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

Correct answer: E – BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

The immunoglobulin fold is a common structural motif found in the immunoglobulin superfamily, which includes B cell receptors (BCRs), T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules. ---

Q18: The genes encoding which of the following can undergo hypermutation to create receptors that are an even better fit for foreign antigens? Options

  1. A. BCRs
  2. B. TCRs
  3. C. MHCs
  4. D. BCRs & TCRs
  5. E. BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

Correct answer: A – BCRs

Only B cell receptors (antibodies) undergo somatic hypermutation in germinal centers to improve antigen binding affinity. TCRs and MHCs do not undergo this process. ---

Q19: The genes encoding which of the following are extensively polymorphic (have multiple alleles or forms of the same gene)? Options

  1. A. BCRs
  2. B. TCRs
  3. C. MHCs
  4. D. BCRs & TCRs
  5. E. BCRs, TCRs, & MHCs

Correct answer: C – MHCs

MHC genes are the most polymorphic genes in the human genome, with hundreds of allelic variants. This diversity allows populations to present a wide variety of pathogenic peptides. ---

Q20: The aim of monoclonal antibody production is to produce cells that only secrete immunoglobulin directed against the antigen used in immunization. Which of the following hybridoma production steps is NOT correct? Options

  1. A. Immunize a mouse with antigen of choice then remove the spleen when the mouse is making an antibody response
  2. B. Fuse the immune spleen cells with a myeloma tumor cell
  3. C. The cells are cultured in a selective medium allowing fused and non-fused cells to survive
  4. D. Cells are grown in individual culture plate wells, and culture supernatants from wells containing growing hybrid cells are screened for presence of de
  5. E. This clone (hybridom

Correct answer: C – The cells are cultured in a selective medium allowing fused and non-fused cells to survive

The selective medium (HAT medium) is designed to kill unfused cells and allow only successfully fused hybridoma cells to survive. Non-fused cells should NOT survive in this medium. ---

Q21: Each antibody molecule contains heavy chains and light chains. Options

  1. A. 1; 1
  2. B. 1; 2
  3. C. 2; 1
  4. D. 2; 2
  5. E. 2; 3

Correct answer: D – 2; 2

A typical antibody molecule has a Y-shaped structure consisting of 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains, connected by disulfide bonds. ---

Q22: Which of the following is the main immunoglobulin in the gut and secretions (saliva, milk, tears) and is important in mucosal immunity? Options

  1. A. IgA
  2. B. IgD
  3. C. IgE
  4. D. IgG
  5. E. IgM

Correct answer: A – IgA

IgA is the predominant antibody in mucosal secretions and provides the first line of defense at mucosal surfaces. It exists as secretory IgA (sIgA) in these locations. ---

Q23: Which of the following binds to an Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils? Options

  1. A. IgA
  2. B. IgD
  3. C. IgE
  4. D. IgG
  5. E. IgM

Correct answer: C – IgE

IgE binds to high-affinity Fc receptors (FcεRI) on mast cells and basophils. Cross-linking of bound IgE by allergens triggers degranulation and allergic reactions. ---

Q24: Which of the following is chiefly found on the surface of B cells as a receptor molecule and is involved in cell activation? Options

  1. A. IgA
  2. B. IgD
  3. C. IgE
  4. D. IgG
  5. E. IgM

Correct answer: B – IgD

IgD is primarily found on the surface of mature, naive B cells along with IgM. It serves as a B cell receptor and plays a role in B cell activation and tolerance. ---

Q25: Which of the following is NOT involved in the antigen-antibody interaction? Options

  1. A. Electrostatic interactions between charged side-chains
  2. B. Hydrophobic interactions
  3. C. Van der Waals forces
  4. D. Hydrogen bonds
  5. E. Peptide bonds

Correct answer: E – Peptide bonds

Antigen-antibody interactions involve non-covalent forces like electrostatic interactions, hydrophobic interactions, Van der Waals forces, and hydrogen bonds. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds within protein structures, not between antigen and antibody. ---

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