ONCOPATHOLOGY MCQs - HALLMARKS OF CANCER – 30 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

30 Year 3: General Pathology exam questions on ONCOPATHOLOGY MCQs - HALLMARKS OF CANCER for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written q

This MCQ set contains 30 questions on ONCOPATHOLOGY MCQs - HALLMARKS OF CANCER in the Year 3: General Pathology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: A patient with von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome develops multiple tumors. Which molecular mechanism BEST explains the increased angiogenesis in these tumors?

  1. A. Increased production of thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1)
  2. B. Enhanced degradation of VEGF by proteases
  3. C. Failure to ubiquitinate and destroy HIF-1α in normoxic conditions
  4. D. Decreased expression of Notch signaling ligands

Correct answer: C – Failure to ubiquitinate and destroy HIF-1α in normoxic conditions

In VHL syndrome, mutated VHL protein cannot bind to HIF-1α even in normoxic conditions. This prevents ubiquitination and destruction of HIF-1α, leading to continuous transcription of VEGF and other pro-angiogenic factors, causing excessive angiogenesis even without hypoxia.

Q2: A tumor reaches 1.8 mm in diameter but fails to grow further for several years. Which statement BEST explains this phenomenon?

  1. A. The tumor has reached its maximum replicative potential
  2. B. Oxygen and nutrients cannot diffuse beyond this distance from blood vessels
  3. C. The tumor has activated p53-mediated apoptosis
  4. D. E-cadherin expression has increased, preventing growth

Correct answer: B – Oxygen and nutrients cannot diffuse beyond this distance from blood vessels

Tumors cannot enlarge beyond 1-2 mm in diameter without vascularization because this represents the maximal distance across which oxygen, nutrients, and waste can diffuse from blood vessels. The tumor remains dormant until the "angiogenic switch" occurs.

Q3: During tumor angiogenesis, MMP-9 performs multiple functions. Which combination of activities is CORRECT?

  1. A. Degrades type IV collagen and releases VEGF from ECM pools
  2. B. Inhibits VEGF production and stabilizes basement membrane
  3. C. Produces thrombospondin-1 and prevents vessel formation
  4. D. Activates p53 and induces endothelial cell apoptosis

Correct answer: A – Degrades type IV collagen and releases VEGF from ECM pools

MMP-9 is a gelatinase that cleaves type IV collagen (found in epithelial and vascular basement membranes) AND stimulates release of VEGF from ECM-sequestered pools. This dual action promotes both basement membrane degradation and angiogenesis.

Q4: A researcher studies newly formed tumor vessels and compares them to normal capillaries. Which characteristic would MOST likely be observed in tumor vasculature?

  1. A. Regular branching pattern with tight endothelial junctions
  2. B. Leaky, dilated vessels with haphazard connections
  3. C. Decreased VEGF receptor expression on endothelial cells
  4. D. Complete absence of pericyte coverage

Correct answer: B – Leaky, dilated vessels with haphazard connections

Tumor vasculature is characteristically abnormal - vessels are leaky and dilated with a haphazard pattern of connection, unlike the organized structure of normal capillaries. This abnormality contributes to poor perfusion and creates opportunities for metastasis.

Q5: Normal p53 plays a role in preventing angiogenesis. Which mechanism explains this anti-angiogenic effect?

  1. A. Direct degradation of VEGF proteins
  2. B. Induction of thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1) synthesis
  3. C. Activation of matrix metalloproteinases
  4. D. Inhibition of HIF-1α transcription

Correct answer: B – Induction of thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1) synthesis

Normal p53 induces synthesis of TSP-1, which is a prototypical angiogenesis inhibitor. Loss of p53 function in tumors leads to decreased TSP-1 production, contributing to the angiogenic switch and tumor vascularization.

Q6: Three angiogenesis inhibitors—angiostatin, endostatin, and vasculostatin—share what common characteristic?

  1. A. They are all direct products of tumor cell secretion
  2. B. They are produced by proteolytic cleavage of other proteins
  3. C. They all inhibit HIF-1α transcription
  4. D. They are all induced by hypoxia

Correct answer: B – They are produced by proteolytic cleavage of other proteins

These three potent angiogenesis inhibitors are all produced by proteolytic cleavage: angiostatin from plasminogen, endostatin from collagen, and vasculostatin from transthyretin. This shows how proteases can have both pro- and anti-angiogenic effects.

Q7: Newly formed endothelial cells in tumor vessels contribute to tumor growth through which mechanism BEYOND providing nutrients?

  1. A. Secreting growth factors like insulin-like growth factors and PDGF
  2. B. Producing E-cadherin to stabilize tumor architecture
  3. C. Activating apoptosis in adjacent stromal cells
  4. D. Directly differentiating into tumor cells

Correct answer: A – Secreting growth factors like insulin-like growth factors and PDGF

Neovascularization has a dual effect: perfusion supplies nutrients AND newly formed endothelial cells stimulate growth of adjacent tumor cells by secreting growth factors such as insulin-like growth factors, PDGF, and GM-CSF. This paracrine signaling enhances tumor proliferation.

Q8: A metastatic tumor cell must successfully complete multiple steps to establish a distant metastasis. At which stage do MOST tumor cells fail?

  1. A. Initial detachment from the primary tumor
  2. B. Intravasation into blood vessels
  3. C. Survival in circulation
  4. D. Colonization and growth at distant sites

Correct answer: D – Colonization and growth at distant sites

Tumor cells are quite inefficient at colonizing distant organs. Millions of tumor cells are shed daily from even small tumors, but gross metastatic lesions don't always develop. The target tissue must provide a receptive stroma, and most sites are non-permissive environments for tumor growth.

Q9: Loss of E-cadherin function promotes metastasis through which TWO mechanisms?

  1. A. Loss of intercellular adhesion and loss of β-catenin sequestration
  2. B. Increased apoptosis and enhanced immune recognition
  3. C. Decreased MMP production and reduced invasion
  4. D. Enhanced thrombospondin production and inhibited angiogenesis

Correct answer: A – Loss of intercellular adhesion and loss of β-catenin sequestration

E-cadherin loss promotes metastasis by: (1) loosening tumor cell-to-cell contacts (loss of "intercellular glue"), and (2) failing to sequester β-catenin, which can then promote proliferation. E-cadherin also transmits anti-growth signals when functioning normally.

Q10: A breast cancer sample shows high expression of CXCR4 and CCR7 chemokine receptors. To which organs is this tumor MOST likely to metastasize?

  1. A. Only to the first capillary bed encountered
  2. B. To organs expressing high levels of CXCL12 and CCL21
  3. C. Randomly to any vascularized organ
  4. D. To organs with the lowest blood flow

Correct answer: B – To organs expressing high levels of CXCL12 and CCL21

Organ tropism is partly explained by chemokine receptor-ligand matching. Breast cancer cells expressing CXCR4 and CCR7 preferentially metastasize to organs highly expressing the corresponding ligands (CXCL12 and CCL21), such as bone, lung, and lymph nodes.

Q11: During ECM invasion, tumor cells must complete four sequential steps. Which is the FIRST step?

  1. A. Degradation of basement membrane
  2. B. Loosening of tumor cell-to-cell contacts
  3. C. Attachment to ECM proteins
  4. D. Locomotion through degraded matrix

Correct answer: B – Loosening of tumor cell-to-cell contacts

The first step in the metastatic cascade is loosening of tumor cell-to-cell contacts, primarily through loss of E-cadherin function. This must occur before cells can detach and begin the invasion process through basement membrane degradation and migration.

Q12: Cleavage of basement membrane collagen IV and laminin by MMPs serves what additional purpose beyond degradation?

  1. A. It completely inactivates these proteins
  2. B. It generates novel binding sites that promote tumor cell migration
  3. C. It produces potent angiogenesis inhibitors
  4. D. It activates p53-mediated apoptosis

Correct answer: B – It generates novel binding sites that promote tumor cell migration

Cleavage of collagen IV and laminin by MMP-2 or MMP-9 generates novel sites that bind to receptors on tumor cells and stimulate migration. The matrix is thus modified in ways that actively promote invasion and metastasis, not just passively allowing passage.

Q13: Why are skeletal muscles rarely sites of metastasis despite being well-vascularized?

  1. A. Muscle cells produce high levels of TSP-1
  2. B. The target tissue provides a non-permissive environment
  3. C. Tumor cells cannot adhere to muscle endothelium
  4. D. Skeletal muscle has no basement membrane

Correct answer: B – The target tissue provides a non-permissive environment

Despite being well-vascularized, skeletal muscles are rarely metastatic sites because the target tissue is non-permissive. This demonstrates that vascularization alone is insufficient - tumor cells depend on a receptive stroma for growth, which skeletal muscle fails to provide.

Q14: Tumor-associated fibroblasts contribute to metastasis by exhibiting altered expression of multiple factors. Which combination is CORRECT?

  1. A. Decreased ECM molecules and decreased proteases
  2. B. Increased ECM molecules, proteases, and growth factors
  3. C. Increased protease inhibitors and decreased growth factors
  4. D. Only altered ECM molecule expression

Correct answer: B – Increased ECM molecules, proteases, and growth factors

Tumor-associated fibroblasts show altered expression of genes encoding ECM molecules, proteases, protease inhibitors, AND various growth factors. This creates a complex, dynamic environment with significant cross-talk between tumor cells, fibroblasts, immune cells, and ECM that promotes tumor progression.

Q15: Hepatocyte growth factor/scatter factor (HGF/SCF) is found at high concentrations at the advancing edges of glioblastoma multiforme. What is its primary role?

  1. A. Inhibiting angiogenesis
  2. B. Promoting tumor cell motility
  3. C. Inducing apoptosis in leading edge cells
  4. D. Stabilizing cell-cell adhesions

Correct answer: B – Promoting tumor cell motility

HGF/SCF is a paracrine effector of cell motility produced by stromal cells. Its elevated concentration at the advancing edges of highly invasive tumors like glioblastoma supports its role in promoting tumor cell locomotion and invasion.

Q16: In the bloodstream, tumor cells that form emboli by aggregating with leukocytes and platelets gain what advantage?

  1. A. Increased exposure to immune surveillance
  2. B. Enhanced apoptosis signaling
  3. C. Protection from anti-tumor host effector cells
  4. D. Decreased ability to extravasate

Correct answer: C – Protection from anti-tumor host effector cells

Aggregated tumor cells are afforded some protection from anti-tumor host effector cells when they form emboli with circulating leukocytes and platelets. However, most tumor cells circulate as single cells, which are more vulnerable.

Q17: A colon cancer shows the following sequence of mutations: APC inactivation → RAS activation → 18q loss → TP53 loss. This supports which concept?

  1. A. All mutations must occur in this exact order
  2. B. Malignancy requires accumulation of multiple mutations
  3. C. Single mutations are sufficient for carcinogenesis
  4. D. Benign tumors have more mutations than malignant ones

Correct answer: B – Malignancy requires accumulation of multiple mutations

This classic colon cancer progression demonstrates that malignancy requires accumulation of multiple mutations affecting different pathways. While the precise temporal sequence may vary in different tumors, the principle of multistep carcinogenesis requiring several fundamental abnormalities is consistent.

Q18: Cancer cells exhibiting the Warburg effect produce how many ATP molecules per glucose compared to normal oxidative phosphorylation?

  1. A. 2 versus 36
  2. B. 10 versus 36
  3. C. 36 versus 2
  4. D. Equal amounts

Correct answer: A – 2 versus 36

Aerobic glycolysis (Warburg effect) produces only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule, versus 36 from mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation. Despite being less efficient, this metabolic shift allows rapid cell division by shunting glucose carbons toward biosynthetic pathways.

Q19: Rapidly growing tumors like Burkitt lymphoma utilize aerobic glycolysis despite its inefficiency. What clinical application exploits this metabolic characteristic?

  1. A. Measuring serum lactate levels
  2. B. PET scanning with 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose
  3. C. Detecting mitochondrial enzyme levels
  4. D. Measuring oxygen consumption rates

Correct answer: B – PET scanning with 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose

The "glucose hunger" of tumors using aerobic glycolysis is exploited clinically through PET scanning, where patients receive 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose (a non-metabolizable glucose derivative). Rapidly growing tumors show marked PET-positivity due to high glucose uptake.

Q20: Which oncogenes and tumor suppressors are now recognized to stimulate glucose uptake and favor aerobic glycolysis?

  1. A. E-cadherin, VHL, and TSP-1
  2. B. TP53, PTEN, and Akt
  3. C. MMP-9, HGF, and VEGF
  4. D. RAG1, RAG2, and AID

Correct answer: B – TP53, PTEN, and Akt

TP53, PTEN, and Akt (an intermediary in RAS signaling) stimulate glucose uptake by affecting glucose transporter proteins and favor aerobic glycolysis. This demonstrates that the Warburg effect becomes "hard-wired" through mutations in key regulatory genes.

Q21: Patients with Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC) have defects in which DNA repair system?

  1. A. Nucleotide excision repair
  2. B. Mismatch repair system
  3. C. Homologous recombination repair
  4. D. Base excision repair

Correct answer: B – Mismatch repair system

HNPCC patients have defects in the mismatch repair system, leading to microsatellite instability (MSI) characterized by changes in length of short tandem repeating sequences throughout the genome. This genomic instability increases colon cancer risk.

Q22: BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, when mutated in familial breast cancers, normally function in which DNA repair pathway?

  1. A. Mismatch repair
  2. B. Nucleotide excision repair
  3. C. Homologous recombination repair
  4. D. Direct reversal repair

Correct answer: C – Homologous recombination repair

BRCA1 and BRCA2 are involved in homologous recombination DNA repair. Mutations in these genes impair the ability to repair double-strand DNA breaks, leading to genomic instability and increased breast and ovarian cancer risk.

Q23: Patients with xeroderma pigmentosum have increased risk for UV-induced skin cancers due to defects in which repair mechanism?

  1. A. Inability to repair pyrimidine dimers via nucleotide excision repair
  2. B. Failure of mismatch repair
  3. C. Defective homologous recombination
  4. D. Loss of base excision repair

Correct answer: A – Inability to repair pyrimidine dimers via nucleotide excision repair

Xeroderma pigmentosum patients have defects in the nucleotide excision repair pathway, making them unable to repair pyrimidine dimers caused by UV light. This leads to accumulation of mutations and dramatically increased risk of skin cancers in sun-exposed areas.

Q24: Chronic inflammation promotes carcinogenesis through which mechanism involving neutrophils?

  1. A. Production of anti-angiogenic factors
  2. B. Secretion of reactive oxygen species causing DNA damage
  3. C. Enhancement of E-cadherin expression
  4. D. Inhibition of cell proliferation

Correct answer: B – Secretion of reactive oxygen species causing DNA damage

Inflammatory cells like neutrophils contribute to carcinogenesis by secreting reactive oxygen species (ROS), which inflict DNA damage in rapidly dividing cells undergoing compensatory proliferation. This adds to the mutational burden during chronic tissue injury and repair.

Q25: A patient with chronic H. pylori gastritis has increased cancer risk. Which factor MOST directly explains this association?

  1. A. The bacteria directly transform cells into cancer cells
  2. B. Persistent cell replication during tissue repair increases mutation risk
  3. C. H. pylori produces carcinogenic toxins that directly mutate DNA
  4. D. The infection causes immediate p53 inactivation

Correct answer: B – Persistent cell replication during tissue repair increases mutation risk

Chronic inflammation from H. pylori causes compensatory proliferation during tissue repair. This persistent cell replication, aided by growth factors and cytokines from immune cells, places cells at risk of acquiring mutations in genes involved in carcinogenesis. Reduced apoptosis further compounds this risk.

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