Untitled – 12 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

12 Year 2: Microbiology exam questions on Untitled for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written questions. Sample: A paroxysm is a and

This MCQ set contains 12 questions on Untitled in the Year 2: Microbiology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: A paroxysm is a and is characteristic of

  1. A. Fever; meningitis
  2. B. Rapid-fire cough; meningitis
  3. C. Fever; pneumonia
  4. D. Headache; pertussis
  5. E. Rapid-fire cough; pertussis

Correct answer: E – Rapid-fire cough; pertussis

A paroxysm is a sudden, uncontrollable series of coughs characteristic of pertussis (whooping cough) caused by Bordetella pertussis. The paroxysmal stage features severe coughing fits followed by an inspiratory "whoop" sound, often accompanied by post-tussive vomiting. ---

Q2: To treat patients who have ingested botulism toxin, large doses of must be administered.

  1. A. Antibiotic
  2. B. Aspirin
  3. C. Pepto-Bismol
  4. D. Antitoxin
  5. E. Electrolytes

Correct answer: D – Antitoxin

Botulism requires administration of botulinum antitoxin (trivalent or heptavalent). The antitoxin neutralizes circulating toxin but cannot reverse already bound toxin. Early administration is critical. Antibiotics are ineffective against the preformed toxin. ---

Q3: The organism Clostridium perfringens multiplies in foods only under conditions.

  1. A. Aerobic
  2. B. Freezing
  3. C. Anaerobic
  4. D. Saline
  5. E. Permissive

Correct answer: C – Anaerobic

Clostridium perfringens is an obligate anaerobe that multiplies only in oxygen-free environments. Improper food storage (inadequate cooling or reheating) creates anaerobic conditions that allow spore germination and toxin production, leading to food poisoning. ---

Q4: Woolsorter disease applies to the form of

  1. A. Inhalation; tularemia
  2. B. Toxic; myonecrosis
  3. C. Intestinal; anthrax
  4. D. Inhalation; anthrax
  5. E. Ingested; leptospirosis

Correct answer: D – Inhalation; anthrax

Woolsorter's disease is pulmonary anthrax caused by inhaling Bacillus anthracis spores from contaminated animal products (wool, hides). It causes severe hemorrhagic mediastinitis, septic shock, and high mortality. The name comes from textile workers who processed contaminated wool. ---

Q5: Ophthalmia is associated with what two STDs?

  1. A. Syphilis and chlamydia
  2. B. Gonorrhea and chlamydia
  3. C. Syphilis and chancroid
  4. D. Syphilis and gonorrhea
  5. E. Chlamydia and chancroid

Correct answer: B – Gonorrhea and chlamydia

Ophthalmia neonatorum (neonatal conjunctivitis) is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis acquired during passage through an infected birth canal. Both can cause severe conjunctivitis and, if untreated, corneal scarring and blindness. ---

Q6: The first microorganism to satisfy Koch's postulates (in the late 19th century) was

  1. A. Treponema pallidum
  2. B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
  3. C. Mycobacterium leprae
  4. D. Bacillus anthracis
  5. E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Correct answer: D – Bacillus anthracis

Robert Koch first proved Bacillus anthracis as the causative agent of anthrax in 1876, establishing Koch's postulates. He isolated the organism from diseased animals, cultured it in pure form, reproduced the disease in healthy animals, and re-isolated the same organism. ---

Q7: Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?

  1. A. Forms pores in red blood cells causing hemolysis
  2. B. Degrades lecithin in eukaryotic cell membranes
  3. C. Causes release of tumor necrosis factor
  4. D. Inhibits elongation factor 2
  5. E. Causes increased adenylate cyclase activity

Correct answer: D – Inhibits elongation factor 2

Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin. The A subunit catalyzes ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (EF-2), irreversibly inactivating it and blocking protein synthesis. One toxin molecule can kill a cell by halting translation. ---

Q8: The identification of bacteria by serological test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?

  1. A. Capsule
  2. B. Cell wall
  3. C. Flagella
  4. D. Ribosome

Correct answer: D – Ribosome

Ribosomes are internal structures with highly conserved proteins across species, making them poor serological markers. Capsule (K antigens), cell wall (O antigens for LPS), and flagella (H antigens) are surface-exposed and variable, making them excellent for serotyping. ---

Q9: Which of the following species of Pasteurella species has been associated with infection of female genital tract and newborn?

  1. A. Pasteurella multocida
  2. B. Pasteurella ureae
  3. C. Pasteurella bettyae
  4. D. Pasteurella bettyae

Correct answer: C – Pasteurella bettyae

Pasteurella bettyae (formerly CDC group HB-5) is associated with genital tract infections and neonatal infections. P. multocida is primarily associated with animal bites and respiratory infections, not genital tract infections. ---

Q10: Which of the following disease is best diagnosed by serologic means?

  1. A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
  2. B. Gonorrhea
  3. C. Actinomycosis
  4. D. Q Fever
  5. E. TB, gonorrhea, and actinomycosis are diagnosed by culture/microscopy.

Correct answer: D – Q Fever

Q fever (Coxiella burnetii) is best diagnosed serologically by detecting antibodies to phase I and II antigens. The organism is difficult to culture due to obligate intracellular nature. TB, gonorrhea, and actinomycosis are diagnosed by culture/microscopy. ---

Q11: Which of the following is not most important cause of acute bacterial meningitis?

  1. A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. B. Neisseria meningitides
  3. C. Streptococcus pyrogens
  4. D. Hemophilus influenza
  5. E. .

Correct answer: C – Streptococcus pyrogens

S. pyogenes (Group A Strep) rarely causes meningitis. The three most common causes of bacterial meningitis are S. pneumoniae (most common overall), N. meningitidis (especially in young adults), and H. influenzae type b (reduced since Hib vaccine). ---

Q12: Which of the following is most likely to be associated with the formation of a bacterial biofilm?

  1. A. Airway colonization in a cystic fibrosis patient with a mucoid (alginate-producing) strain of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. B. Urinary tract infection with Escherichia coli
  3. C. Meningitis with Neisseria meningitidis
  4. D. Tetanus
  5. E. Impetigo caused by Staphylococcus aureus

Correct answer: A – Airway colonization in a cystic fibrosis patient with a mucoid (alginate-producing) strain of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Mucoid P. aeruginosa produces alginate exopolysaccharide that forms thick biofilms in CF patient airways. These biofilms protect bacteria from antibiotics and immune clearance, causing chronic infection. Biofilm formation is a hallmark of CF pulmonary infection. ---

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