Genetic Disorders MCQ Examination – 60 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

60 Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics exam questions on Genetic Disorders MCQ Examination for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations an

This MCQ set contains 60 questions on Genetic Disorders MCQ Examination in the Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: A couple has a child with an autosomal recessive disorder. Neither parent is affected. What is the probability that their next child will be affected?

  1. A. 50%
  2. B. 25%
  3. C. 75%
  4. D. 100%
  5. E. , 50% chance of a carrier, and 25% chance of being unaffected and not a carrier.

Correct answer: B – 25%

In autosomal recessive inheritance, two carrier parents have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having an affected child (homozygous recessive), 50% chance of a carrier, and 25% chance of being unaffected and not a carrier.

Q2: An estimated 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have which underlying cause?

  1. A. Maternal infection
  2. B. Demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities
  3. C. Autosomal dominant disorders
  4. D. Environmental toxins exclusively

Correct answer: B – Demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities

Approximately 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages are associated with demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the importance of genomic integrity in fetal development.

Q3: What percentage of human DNA codes for proteins?

  1. A. Less than 2%
  2. B. 50%
  3. C. 25%
  4. D. 98%
  5. E.

Correct answer: A – Less than 2%

Less than 2% of human DNA actually codes for proteins. More than half consists of repetitive nucleotide sequences whose functions are not fully understood.

Q4: A patient has a genetic condition that shows different severity among affected family members despite having the same mutation. This phenomenon is called

  1. A. Reduced penetrance
  2. B. Variable expressivity
  3. C. Genetic heterogeneity
  4. D. Pleiotropy

Correct answer: B – Variable expressivity

Variable expressivity occurs when a trait is seen in all individuals with the mutation but is expressed differently in terms of severity or manifestation. Reduced penetrance refers to some individuals not showing the trait at all.

Q5: Sickle cell anemia results from which type of mutation?

  1. A. Frameshift mutation
  2. B. Nonsense mutation
  3. C. Point mutation (non-conservative missens
  4. D.
  5. E. Trinucleotide repeat mutation

Correct answer: C – Point mutation (non-conservative missens

Sickle cell anemia results from a single nucleotide substitution (point mutation) that causes a non-conservative missense mutation, replacing glutamic acid with valine in the beta-globin chain.

Q6: Which approach to understanding genetic disease starts with identifying a known affected protein, then isolating the normal gene?

  1. A. Positional cloning
  2. B. Functional cloning
  3. C. Gene therapy
  4. D. Genomic imprinting

Correct answer: B – Functional cloning

Functional cloning (classic approach) begins with a known affected protein from the clinical phenotype, then isolates and clones the normal gene before determining molecular changes.

Q7: A mutation that changes an amino acid codon to a chain terminator is classified as

  1. A. Missense mutation
  2. B. Silent mutation
  3. C. Nonsense mutation
  4. D. Conservative mutation

Correct answer: C – Nonsense mutation

Nonsense mutations convert an amino acid codon into a stop codon (chain terminator), resulting in premature termination of protein synthesis and usually a non-functional truncated protein.

Q8: How many deleterious genes does the average person carry?

  1. A. 0-1
  2. B. 2-3
  3. C. 5-8
  4. D. 15-20
  5. E. About 80% are familial and the remainder are acquired de novo.

Correct answer: C – 5-8

It is estimated that every person carries 5 to 8 deleterious genes, most being recessive. About 80% are familial and the remainder are acquired de novo.

Q9: In X-linked recessive disorders, an affected male will

  1. A. Transmit the disorder to all his sons
  2. B. Transmit the disorder to all his daughters
  3. C. Not transmit to sons; daughters will be carriers
  4. D. Transmit equally to sons and daughters
  5. E. and their X chromosome to daughters (who become carriers).

Correct answer: C – Not transmit to sons; daughters will be carriers

In X-linked recessive disorders, affected males pass their Y chromosome to sons (who are unaffected) and their X chromosome to daughters (who become carriers).

Q10: Fragile X syndrome is caused by which type of mutation?

  1. A. Point mutation
  2. B. Frameshift mutation
  3. C. Trinucleotide repeat mutation
  4. D. Chromosomal translocation

Correct answer: C – Trinucleotide repeat mutation

Fragile X syndrome results from dynamic amplification of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (typically CGG repeats), with the degree of amplification increasing during gametogenesis.

Q11: What percentage of individuals under 25 years develop a serious disease with significant genetic component?

  1. A. 1%
  2. B. 5%
  3. C. 10%
  4. D. 25%

Correct answer: B – 5%

Approximately 5% of individuals under 25 years develop a serious disease with a significant genetic component, demonstrating the considerable impact of genetic disorders in young populations.

Q12: A single mutant gene leading to multiple, seemingly unrelated effects is an example of

  1. A. Genetic heterogeneity
  2. B. Incomplete dominance
  3. C. Pleiotropy
  4. D. Codominance

Correct answer: C – Pleiotropy

Pleiotropy occurs when a single mutant gene leads to many different end effects, affecting multiple organ systems or producing various manifestations from one genetic defect.

Q13: Which category represents the largest group of Mendelian disorders?

  1. A. Autosomal dominant
  2. B. Autosomal recessive
  3. C. X-linked dominant
  4. D. Y-linked

Correct answer: B – Autosomal recessive

Autosomal recessive disorders constitute the largest category of Mendelian disorders and include almost all inborn errors of metabolism.

Q14: Mutations in promoter and enhancer sequences primarily affect

  1. A. Translation of mRNA
  2. B. DNA replication only
  3. C. Binding of transcription factors and gene transcription
  4. D. Post-translational modifications

Correct answer: C – Binding of transcription factors and gene transcription

Mutations in regulatory sequences (promoters and enhancers) interfere with binding of transcription factors, leading to reduced or absent transcription of the gene, as seen in some hereditary hemolytic anemias.

Q15: In 2020, how many deaths worldwide were attributed to cancer?

  1. A. 6 million
  2. B. 8 million
  3. C. 10 million
  4. D. 15 million

Correct answer: C – 10 million

In 2020, there were approximately 10 million cancer deaths globally (representing 1 in 6 deaths), up from 6 million in 2000, showing an increasing cancer burden.

Q16: A deletion or insertion of two base pairs in a coding sequence would most likely result in

  1. A. Silent mutation
  2. B. Conservative missense mutation
  3. C. Frameshift mutation
  4. D. No effect on protein

Correct answer: C – Frameshift mutation

Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs (not divisible by 3) causes a frameshift mutation, altering the reading frame and typically producing a non-functional protein.

Q17: When mutations at several different genetic loci produce the same clinical trait, this is called

  1. A. Pleiotropy
  2. B. Genetic heterogeneity
  3. C. Variable expressivity
  4. D. Incomplete penetrance

Correct answer: B – Genetic heterogeneity

Genetic heterogeneity occurs when mutations at different genetic loci can produce the same phenotype or disease trait, explaining why the same disease can result from different genetic defects.

Q18: Which inheritance pattern typically shows that the trait does not affect parents but may affect siblings?

  1. A. Autosomal dominant
  2. B. Autosomal recessive
  3. C. X-linked dominant
  4. D. Mitochondrial

Correct answer: B – Autosomal recessive

Autosomal recessive inheritance typically shows unaffected parents (both carriers) with affected siblings, as the trait requires two copies of the mutant allele to manifest.

Q19: Complete penetrance is most commonly seen in

  1. A. Autosomal dominant disorders
  2. B. Autosomal recessive disorders
  3. C. Multifactorial disorders
  4. D. X-linked dominant disorders
  5. E.

Correct answer: B – Autosomal recessive disorders

Complete penetrance is common in autosomal recessive disorders, where expression of the defect tends to be more uniform than in autosomal dominant disorders which often show variable penetrance.

Q20: The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is estimated to be

  1. A. 100 per 1000
  2. B. 250 per 1000
  3. C. 670 per 1000
  4. D. 900 per 1000

Correct answer: C – 670 per 1000

The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is thought to be approximately 670 per 1000, which is higher than widely appreciated, including cardiovascular diseases, immune disorders, and cancers with genetic components.

Q21: Individuals share what percentage of their DNA sequence with other humans?

  1. A. 90%
  2. B. 95%
  3. C. 99.9%
  4. D. 100%
  5. E.

Correct answer: C – 99.9%

Humans share 99.9% of their DNA sequence, with only 0.1% (about 3 million base pairs) accounting for genetic diversity among individuals in the human race.

Q22: A frameshift mutation would NOT occur with an insertion or deletion of

  1. A. 1 base pair
  2. B. 2 base pairs
  3. C. 3 base pairs
  4. D. 5 base pairs

Correct answer: C – 3 base pairs

Insertions or deletions of 3 base pairs (or multiples of 3) do not cause frameshift mutations because they maintain the reading frame, though they result in abnormal proteins missing or gaining amino acids.

Q23: In autosomal dominant disorders, de novo mutations are more commonly associated with

  1. A. Younger mothers
  2. B. Older fathers
  3. C. Consanguinity
  4. D. Environmental toxins exclusively
  5. E.

Correct answer: B – Older fathers

De novo mutations in autosomal dominant disorders are more frequently associated with relatively older fathers, as mutations accumulate in spermatogonial cells over time.

Q24: Which statement about autosomal recessive disorders is INCORRECT?

  1. A. They include almost all inborn errors of metabolism
  2. B. Onset is frequently early in life
  3. C. Parents are usually affected
  4. D. 25% recurrence risk for each birth

Correct answer: C – Parents are usually affected

In autosomal recessive disorders, parents are typically NOT affected but are carriers. The trait manifests in children who inherit two mutant alleles.

Q25: Positional cloning approach involves

  1. A. Starting with a known abnormal protein
  2. B. Mapping disease phenotype to chromosome location first
  3. C. Direct sequencing of all genes
  4. D. Only studying protein function

Correct answer: B – Mapping disease phenotype to chromosome location first

Positional cloning (candidate gene approach) starts by mapping the disease phenotype to a particular chromosome location, then cloning DNA pieces from that region to identify aberrant proteins.

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