Practice 60 MCQs on Genetic Disorders MCQ Examination with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for e...
Q1. A couple has a child with an autosomal recessive disorder. Neither parent is affected. What is the probability that their next child will be affected?
Answer: 25%
Explanation: In autosomal recessive inheritance, two carrier parents have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having an affected child (homozygous recessive), 50% chance of a carrier, and 25% chance of being unaffected and not a carrier.
Q2. An estimated 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have which underlying cause?
Answer: Demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities
Explanation: Approximately 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages are associated with demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the importance of genomic integrity in fetal development.
Q3. What percentage of human DNA codes for proteins?
Answer: Less than 2%
Explanation: Less than 2% of human DNA actually codes for proteins. More than half consists of repetitive nucleotide sequences whose functions are not fully understood.
Q4. A patient has a genetic condition that shows different severity among affected family members despite having the same mutation. This phenomenon is called
Answer: Variable expressivity
Explanation: Variable expressivity occurs when a trait is seen in all individuals with the mutation but is expressed differently in terms of severity or manifestation. Reduced penetrance refers to some individuals not showing the trait at all.
Q5. Sickle cell anemia results from which type of mutation?
Answer: Point mutation (non-conservative missens
Explanation: Sickle cell anemia results from a single nucleotide substitution (point mutation) that causes a non-conservative missense mutation, replacing glutamic acid with valine in the beta-globin chain.
Q6. Which approach to understanding genetic disease starts with identifying a known affected protein, then isolating the normal gene?
Answer: Functional cloning
Explanation: Functional cloning (classic approach) begins with a known affected protein from the clinical phenotype, then isolates and clones the normal gene before determining molecular changes.
Q7. A mutation that changes an amino acid codon to a chain terminator is classified as
Answer: Nonsense mutation
Explanation: Nonsense mutations convert an amino acid codon into a stop codon (chain terminator), resulting in premature termination of protein synthesis and usually a non-functional truncated protein.
Q8. How many deleterious genes does the average person carry?
Answer: 5-8
Explanation: It is estimated that every person carries 5 to 8 deleterious genes, most being recessive. About 80% are familial and the remainder are acquired de novo.
Q9. In X-linked recessive disorders, an affected male will
Answer: Not transmit to sons; daughters will be carriers
Explanation: In X-linked recessive disorders, affected males pass their Y chromosome to sons (who are unaffected) and their X chromosome to daughters (who become carriers).
Q10. Fragile X syndrome is caused by which type of mutation?
Answer: Trinucleotide repeat mutation
Explanation: Fragile X syndrome results from dynamic amplification of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (typically CGG repeats), with the degree of amplification increasing during gametogenesis.
Q11. What percentage of individuals under 25 years develop a serious disease with significant genetic component?
Answer: 25%
Explanation: Approximately 5% of individuals under 25 years develop a serious disease with a significant genetic component, demonstrating the considerable impact of genetic disorders in young populations.
Q12. A single mutant gene leading to multiple, seemingly unrelated effects is an example of
Answer: Pleiotropy
Explanation: Pleiotropy occurs when a single mutant gene leads to many different end effects, affecting multiple organ systems or producing various manifestations from one genetic defect.
Q13. Which category represents the largest group of Mendelian disorders?
Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation: Autosomal recessive disorders constitute the largest category of Mendelian disorders and include almost all inborn errors of metabolism.
Q14. Mutations in promoter and enhancer sequences primarily affect
Answer: Binding of transcription factors and gene transcription
Explanation: Mutations in regulatory sequences (promoters and enhancers) interfere with binding of transcription factors, leading to reduced or absent transcription of the gene, as seen in some hereditary hemolytic anemias.
Q15. In 2020, how many deaths worldwide were attributed to cancer?
Answer: 10 million
Explanation: In 2020, there were approximately 10 million cancer deaths globally (representing 1 in 6 deaths), up from 6 million in 2000, showing an increasing cancer burden.
Q16. A deletion or insertion of two base pairs in a coding sequence would most likely result in
Answer: Frameshift mutation
Explanation: Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs (not divisible by 3) causes a frameshift mutation, altering the reading frame and typically producing a non-functional protein.
Q17. When mutations at several different genetic loci produce the same clinical trait, this is called
Answer: Genetic heterogeneity
Explanation: Genetic heterogeneity occurs when mutations at different genetic loci can produce the same phenotype or disease trait, explaining why the same disease can result from different genetic defects.
Q18. Which inheritance pattern typically shows that the trait does not affect parents but may affect siblings?
Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation: Autosomal recessive inheritance typically shows unaffected parents (both carriers) with affected siblings, as the trait requires two copies of the mutant allele to manifest.
Q19. Complete penetrance is most commonly seen in
Answer: Autosomal recessive disorders
Explanation: Complete penetrance is common in autosomal recessive disorders, where expression of the defect tends to be more uniform than in autosomal dominant disorders which often show variable penetrance.
Q20. The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is estimated to be
Answer: 670 per 1000
Explanation: The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is thought to be approximately 670 per 1000, which is higher than widely appreciated, including cardiovascular diseases, immune disorders, and cancers with genetic components.
Q21. Individuals share what percentage of their DNA sequence with other humans?
Answer: 99.9%
Explanation: Humans share 99.9% of their DNA sequence, with only 0.1% (about 3 million base pairs) accounting for genetic diversity among individuals in the human race.
Q22. A frameshift mutation would NOT occur with an insertion or deletion of
Answer: 3 base pairs
Explanation: Insertions or deletions of 3 base pairs (or multiples of 3) do not cause frameshift mutations because they maintain the reading frame, though they result in abnormal proteins missing or gaining amino acids.
Q23. In autosomal dominant disorders, de novo mutations are more commonly associated with
Answer: Older fathers
Explanation: De novo mutations in autosomal dominant disorders are more frequently associated with relatively older fathers, as mutations accumulate in spermatogonial cells over time.
Q24. Which statement about autosomal recessive disorders is INCORRECT?
Answer: Parents are usually affected
Explanation: In autosomal recessive disorders, parents are typically NOT affected but are carriers. The trait manifests in children who inherit two mutant alleles.
Q25. Positional cloning approach involves
Answer: Mapping disease phenotype to chromosome location first
Explanation: Positional cloning (candidate gene approach) starts by mapping the disease phenotype to a particular chromosome location, then cloning DNA pieces from that region to identify aberrant proteins.
Q26. Conservative missense mutations differ from non-conservative ones in that they
Answer: Substitute chemically similar amino acids
Explanation: Conservative missense mutations substitute an amino acid with another that has similar chemical properties, potentially having less severe effects than non-conservative mutations that substitute chemically different amino acids.
Q27. Vitamin D-resistant rickets represents which unusual inheritance pattern?
Answer: X-linked dominant
Explanation: Vitamin D-resistant rickets is one of the few X-linked dominant conditions, making it an exception to the rule that almost all X-linked disorders are recessive.
Q28. Gene therapy aims to treat genetic diseases by
Answer: Transfer of somatic cells transfected with normal genes
Explanation: Gene therapy involves treating genetic diseases by transferring somatic cells that have been transfected with normal genes, though questions remain about whether benefits outweigh risks.
Q29. In Kenya (2018), cancer was which leading cause of death?
Answer: 3rd
Explanation: In Kenya in 2018, cancer was the 3rd leading cause of death, with 47,887 new cases and 32,987 deaths reported, showing a significant increase from 2012 figures.
Q30. Mutations affecting somatic cells result in
Answer: Cancers and some congenital malformations
Explanation: Somatic cell mutations are not transmitted to progeny but can result in cancers and some congenital malformations in the affected individual.
Q31. The term "reduced penetrance" means
Answer: Some percentage show the trait, others are phenotypically normal despite having the mutation
Explanation: Reduced penetrance refers to the phenomenon where a certain percentage of individuals with a mutation are affected while others remain phenotypically normal despite carrying the mutation.
Q32. Which biologically active agent can be produced by inserting requisite genes into bacteria?
Answer: Erythropoietin
Explanation: Human biologically active agents like erythropoietin, growth hormone, tissue plasminogen activator, and soluble TNF receptor can be produced by inserting genes into bacteria or cultured cells.
Q33. Approximately how many genes do humans have?
Answer: 30,000
Explanation: Human beings have approximately 30,000 genes, though less than 2% of total DNA codes for proteins, with much of the genome consisting of repetitive sequences.
Q34. In autosomal dominant inheritance, both males and females
Answer: Can be affected and can transmit the disorder
Explanation: Autosomal dominant disorders affect both males and females equally, and both sexes can transmit the disorder to their offspring, requiring only one copy of the mutant allele.
Q35. Trinucleotide repeat mutations are described as "dynamic" because
Answer: The degree of amplification increases during gametogenesis
Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat mutations are dynamic because the degree of amplification (expansion) of the repeat sequence increases during gametogenesis, often leading to more severe disease in successive generations (anticipation).
Q36. Which category of genetic disorders involves visible structural changes in chromosomes?
Answer: Chromosome mutations
Explanation: Chromosome mutations involve rearrangement of genetic material resulting in visible structural changes in chromosomes, distinct from gene mutations or whole chromosome gains/losses.
Q37. A mutation in an enhancer sequence would most likely affect
Answer: Gene transcription levels
Explanation: Enhancer sequences are regulatory elements that increase transcription. Mutations in enhancers affect the level of gene transcription by interfering with transcription factor binding.
Q38. Monosomies and trisomies are examples of
Answer: Genome mutations
Explanation: Monosomies (loss of a chromosome) and trisomies (gain of a chromosome) are genome mutations involving the loss or gain of whole chromosomes.
Q39. Which mechanism is NOT typically involved in autosomal dominant disorders?
Answer: Requirement for two mutant alleles
Explanation: Autosomal dominant disorders manifest with only one mutant allele (heterozygous state). Requiring two mutant alleles is characteristic of recessive disorders.
Q40. The concept of delayed onset is particularly characteristic of
Answer: Many autosomal dominant disorders
Explanation: Many autosomal dominant conditions have delayed onset, manifesting in adulthood rather than early in life, which is an important feature distinguishing them from many recessive disorders.
Q41. What percentage of deleterious genes carried by individuals are familial versus de novo?
Answer: 80% familial, 20% de novo
Explanation: Of the 5-8 deleterious genes carried by each person, approximately 80% are familial (inherited) and the remainder (20%) are acquired de novo.
Q42. Molecular probes in disease diagnosis can be used for
Answer: Both genetic and non-genetic diseases including infections
Explanation: Molecular probes are used in diagnosis of both genetic diseases and non-genetic diseases, including infectious diseases, making them versatile diagnostic tools.
Q43. In which type of disorder would consanguinity most likely increase disease prevalence?
Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation: Consanguinity (marriage between related individuals) significantly increases the risk of autosomal recessive disorders because related individuals are more likely to carry the same recessive mutations.
Q44. A silent mutation would most likely result from
Answer: Nucleotide change that doesn't alter amino acid due to genetic code degeneracy
Explanation: Silent mutations are nucleotide substitutions that don't change the amino acid due to the degeneracy of the genetic code (multiple codons for same amino acid), having no effect on the protein.
Q45. Almost all inborn errors of metabolism follow which inheritance pattern?
Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation: Almost all inborn errors of metabolism are autosomal recessive disorders, where enzyme deficiencies manifest only in the homozygous recessive state.
Q46. Between 2000 and 2020, global new cancer cases increased by approximately
Answer: 8 million
Explanation: New cancer cases increased from 10 million in 2000 to 18.1 million in 2020, representing an increase of approximately 8 million cases, highlighting the growing cancer burden globally.
Q47. Which biochemical/molecular basis is NOT listed as a mechanism for Mendelian disorders?
Answer: Prion protein misfolding
Explanation: The listed mechanisms include enzyme defects, receptor defects, transport defects, structural protein alterations, hemostasis defects, and growth regulation defects. Prion diseases are not typical Mendelian disorders.
Q48. Gene expression in Mendelian disorders may be
Answer: Dominant, recessive, or co-dominant
Explanation: Gene expression in Mendelian disorders can be dominant (one mutant allele sufficient), recessive (two mutant alleles needed), or co-dominant (both alleles expressed).
Q49. A patient has a disorder that shows genetic heterogeneity. This means
Answer: Multiple genes can cause the same disease
Explanation: Genetic heterogeneity means that mutations at several different genetic loci can produce the same trait or disease phenotype, explaining why clinically similar diseases can have different genetic causes.
Q50. The main difference between benign and malignant neoplasms is
Answer: Ability to invade and metastasize
Explanation: The fundamental difference is that malignant neoplasms can invade adjacent tissues and metastasize to distant sites, while benign tumors remain localized despite potentially growing large.
Q51. Melanoma and seminoma are described as "oddly named" neoplasms because
Answer: They end in -oma but are malignant
Explanation: These neoplasms are oddly named because they end in -oma (typically denoting benign tumors) but are actually malignant neoplasms, breaking the standard nomenclature convention.
Q52. A lipoma is a benign tumor of
Answer: Mesenchymal origin (adipose tissu
Explanation: Lipoma is a benign tumor of mesenchymal origin, specifically from adipose (fat) tissue, following the nomenclature rule of adding -oma to the cell of origin.
Q53. Malignant tumors of epithelial origin are generally called
Answer: Carcinomas
Explanation: Malignant tumors of epithelial origin are called carcinomas (e.g., squamous cell carcinoma), while sarcomas arise from mesenchymal tissues.
Q54. A cystadenoma is characterized by
Answer: Large cystic spaces within glandular epithelial tumor
Explanation: Cystadenomas are benign tumors of glandular epithelial origin that contain large cystic spaces, distinguishing them from solid adenomas.
Q55. Defects in hemostasis as a basis for Mendelian disorders would most likely involve
Answer: Clotting factors and related proteins
Explanation: Defects in hemostasis involve abnormalities in clotting factors and related proteins involved in blood coagulation, such as in hemophilia.
Q56. Genetically determined adverse reactions to drugs represent
Answer: A biochemical/molecular basis of some Mendelian disorders
Explanation: Genetically determined adverse drug reactions (pharmacogenetics) represent one of the biochemical/molecular bases of Mendelian disorders, where genetic variations affect drug metabolism or response.
Q57. A papilloma is characterized by
Answer: Finger-like or warty projections
Explanation: Papillomas are benign epithelial neoplasms characterized by finger-like or warty projections, named for their distinctive architectural pattern.
Q58. Alterations in structure, function, or quantity of non-enzyme proteins can cause
Answer: Various Mendelian disorders
Explanation: Alterations in non-enzyme proteins (structural, transport, regulatory) represent an important biochemical/molecular basis for various Mendelian disorders beyond enzyme deficiencies.
Q59. In Kenya, the increase in cancer cases from 2012 to 2018 represents approximately
Answer: 11,000 new cases
Explanation: Cancer cases in Kenya increased from 37,000 in 2012 to 47,887 in 2018, representing an increase of approximately 10,887 (nearly 11,000) new cases over 6 years.
Q60. --- END OF EXAMINATION
Answer: Mesenchymal origin