SINGLE-GENE DISORDERS WITH ATYPICAL INHERITANCE MCQs – 49 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

49 Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics exam questions on SINGLE-GENE DISORDERS WITH ATYPICAL INHERITANCE MCQs for medical students. Includes MCQs, answe

This MCQ set contains 49 questions on SINGLE-GENE DISORDERS WITH ATYPICAL INHERITANCE MCQs in the Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: What is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after Down syndrome?

  1. A. Huntington disease
  2. B. Fragile X syndrome
  3. C. Prader-Willi syndrome
  4. D. Myotonic dystrophy

Correct answer: B – Fragile X syndrome

Fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after Down syndrome, with a frequency of 1 in 1550 for affected males and 1 in 8000 for affected females.

Q2: What is the normal number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene?

  1. A. Around 5
  2. B. Around 29
  3. C. Around 100
  4. D. Around 200

Correct answer: B – Around 29

In the normal population, the number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene averages around 29, whereas affected persons have 200 to 4000 repeats (full mutations).

Q3: What defines a premutation in fragile X syndrome?

  1. A. 1-30 CGG repeats
  2. B. 31-51 CGG repeats
  3. C. 52-200 CGG repeats
  4. D. Over 200 CGG repeats

Correct answer: C – 52-200 CGG repeats

Premutations are characterized by 52 to 200 CGG repeats. Carrier males and females have premutations that can be converted to full mutations (200-4000 repeats) during oogenesis.

Q4: During which process can premutations be converted to full mutations in fragile X syndrome?

  1. A. Spermatogenesis only
  2. B. Oogenesis only
  3. C. Both oogenesis and spermatogenesis
  4. D. Mitosis

Correct answer: B – Oogenesis only

During oogenesis (but not spermatogenesis), premutations can be converted to full mutations by further amplification of CGG repeats, which can then be transmitted to both sons and daughters.

Q5: What is the only distinctive physical abnormality detected in at least 90% of postpubertal males with fragile X syndrome?

  1. A. Long face
  2. B. Large everted ears
  3. C. Macroorchidism
  4. D. Large mandible

Correct answer: C – Macroorchidism

The only distinctive physical abnormality that can be detected in at least 90% of postpubertal males with fragile X syndrome is macroorchidism (large testicles).

Q6: What phenomenon describes the worsening of clinical features with each successive generation in fragile X syndrome?

  1. A. Imprinting
  2. B. Anticipation
  3. C. Uniparental disomy
  4. D. Heteroplasmy

Correct answer: B – Anticipation

Anticipation refers to the phenomenon whereby clinical features worsen with each successive generation, as the mutation becomes increasingly deleterious as it is transmitted through generations.

Q7: What percentage of carrier females with fragile X are affected (mentally retarded)?

  1. A. 5-10%
  2. B. 10-20%
  3. C. 30-50%
  4. D. 70-90%

Correct answer: C – 30-50%

From 30% to 50% of carrier females are affected (mentally retarded), a number much higher than that for other X-linked recessive disorders, explained by inheritance of full mutations.

Q8: What is the molecular basis for fragile X syndrome?

  1. A. Overexpression of FMRP
  2. B. Silencing of FMRP due to methylation
  3. C. Deletion of the FMR1 gene
  4. D. Point mutation in FMRP

Correct answer: B – Silencing of FMRP due to methylation

When CGG repeats exceed 230, the DNA of the FMR1 gene becomes abnormally methylated, extending to the promoter region, resulting in transcriptional suppression and absence of FMRP.

Q9: What is the function of FMRP (Familial Mental Retardation Protein)?

  1. A. DNA repair enzyme
  2. B. RNA-binding protein that regulates mRNA translation in synapses
  3. C. Membrane receptor
  4. D. Mitochondrial enzyme

Correct answer: B – RNA-binding protein that regulates mRNA translation in synapses

FMRP is an RNA-binding protein transported from cytoplasm to nucleus, where it binds specific mRNAs and transports them to axons and dendrites, regulating translation at synapses.

Q10: What condition affects approximately 30% of females carrying the fragile X premutation?

  1. A. Mental retardation
  2. B. Premature ovarian failure before age 40
  3. C. Breast cancer
  4. D. Diabetes

Correct answer: B – Premature ovarian failure before age 40

Approximately 30% of females carrying the premutation have premature ovarian failure (before age 40), indicating that premutations are not benign though abnormalities are milder.

Q11: What syndrome develops in approximately one-third of premutation-carrying males in their sixth decade?

  1. A. Alzheimer disease
  2. B. Parkinson disease
  3. C. Fragile X-associated tremor-ataxia
  4. D. Multiple sclerosis

Correct answer: C – Fragile X-associated tremor-ataxia

About one-third of premutation-carrying males exhibit fragile X-associated tremor-ataxia starting in their sixth decade, characterized by intention tremors and cerebellar ataxia, potentially progressing to parkinsonism.

Q12: In Huntington disease, when does conversion from premutation to full mutation occur?

  1. A. During oogenesis
  2. B. During spermatogenesis
  3. C. During mitosis
  4. D. During fertilization

Correct answer: B – During spermatogenesis

Unlike fragile X syndrome where expansion occurs during oogenesis, in Huntington disease and some other trinucleotide repeat disorders, premutations are converted to full mutations during spermatogenesis.

Q13: What type of mutation occurs when trinucleotide repeats affect coding regions?

  1. A. Loss of function
  2. B. Toxic gain of function
  3. C. Silent mutation
  4. D. Neutral mutation

Correct answer: B – Toxic gain of function

When mutations affect coding regions (like in Huntington disease), they give rise to misfolded proteins that interfere with normal protein function, called toxic gain-of-function mutations.

Q14: What are diseases involving CAG repeat expansions in coding regions commonly called?

  1. A. Fragile site disorders
  2. B. Polyglutamine diseases
  3. C. Mitochondrial diseases
  4. D. Imprinting disorders

Correct answer: B – Polyglutamine diseases

Diseases involving CAG repeats that encode polyglutamine tracts are referred to as "polyglutamine diseases," which primarily affect the nervous system and feature accumulation of misfolded protein aggregates.

Q15: Why does maternal inheritance occur in mitochondrial diseases?

  1. A. Mothers have more mitochondria
  2. B. Ova contain mitochondria while spermatozoa contain few or none
  3. C. Mitochondrial DNA is X-linked
  4. D. Fathers cannot transmit any organelles

Correct answer: B – Ova contain mitochondria while spermatozoa contain few or none

Ova contain mitochondria within their abundant cytoplasm, whereas spermatozoa contain few if any mitochondria. The mitochondrial DNA of the zygote is therefore derived entirely from the ovum.

Q16: Which organs are most affected by mitochondrial diseases?

  1. A. Skin and hair
  2. B. Liver and kidneys
  3. C. Skeletal muscle, heart, and brain
  4. D. Lungs and spleen

Correct answer: C – Skeletal muscle, heart, and brain

Because mitochondrial DNA encodes enzymes for oxidative phosphorylation, diseases from mitochondrial mutations affect organs most dependent on oxidative phosphorylation: skeletal muscle, heart, and brain.

Q17: What is the prototypical mitochondrial disease?

  1. A. Fragile X syndrome
  2. B. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
  3. C. Huntington disease
  4. D. Prader-Willi syndrome

Correct answer: B – Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is the prototypical mitochondrial disorder, manifesting as progressive bilateral loss of central vision leading to blindness.

Q18: What is genomic imprinting?

  1. A. DNA replication errors
  2. B. Differential inactivation of genes during gametogenesis
  3. C. Chromosome translocation
  4. D. Gene duplication

Correct answer: B – Differential inactivation of genes during gametogenesis

Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic process whereby certain genes are differentially inactivated during paternal and maternal gametogenesis, creating functional differences between maternal and paternal gene copies.

Q19: What molecular mechanism is associated with genomic imprinting?

  1. A. Point mutations
  2. B. Methylation of gene promoter
  3. C. Gene deletion
  4. D. Chromosome inversion

Correct answer: B – Methylation of gene promoter

At the molecular level, imprinting is associated with methylation of the gene promoter, as well as histone protein modifications, which silence the gene.

Q20: What chromosomal region is deleted in both Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes?

  1. A. Chromosome 15q11-q13
  2. B. Chromosome 7q11
  3. C. Chromosome 22q11
  4. D. Chromosome Xq27

Correct answer: A – Chromosome 15q11-q13

Both Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes involve deletion of band q12 in the long arm of chromosome 15 (15q11-q13), but the parent of origin differs.

Q21: In Prader-Willi syndrome, which parental chromosome is deleted?

  1. A. Maternal
  2. B. Paternal
  3. C. Either maternal or paternal
  4. D. Both

Correct answer: B – Paternal

In Prader-Willi syndrome, the deletion affects the paternally derived chromosome 15 in all cases, demonstrating parent-of-origin effects on gene function.

Q22: What clinical features characterize Prader-Willi syndrome?

  1. A. Ataxia, seizures, and inappropriate laughter
  2. B. Mental retardation, obesity, small hands/feet, hypogonadism
  3. C. Vision loss and blindness
  4. D. Tremors and parkinsonism

Correct answer: B – Mental retardation, obesity, small hands/feet, hypogonadism

Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by mental retardation, short stature, hypotonia, obesity, small hands and feet, and hypogonadism.

Q23: In Angelman syndrome, which parental chromosome is deleted?

  1. A. Maternal
  2. B. Paternal
  3. C. Either maternal or paternal
  4. D. Both

Correct answer: A – Maternal

In Angelman syndrome, the deletion affects the maternally derived chromosome 15, in contrast to Prader-Willi syndrome where the paternal chromosome is deleted.

Q24: What clinical features characterize Angelman syndrome?

  1. A. Obesity and hypogonadism
  2. B. Mental retardation, ataxic gait, seizures, inappropriate laughter
  3. C. Vision loss
  4. D. Muscle weakness only

Correct answer: B – Mental retardation, ataxic gait, seizures, inappropriate laughter

Angelman syndrome patients are mentally retarded and present with ataxic gait, seizures, and inappropriate laughter, giving rise to the name "happy puppet syndrome."

Q25: What is uniparental disomy?

  1. A. Having three copies of a chromosome
  2. B. Inheritance of both chromosomes of a pair from one parent
  3. C. Deletion of one chromosome
  4. D. Translocation between chromosomes

Correct answer: B – Inheritance of both chromosomes of a pair from one parent

Uniparental disomy is the inheritance of both chromosomes of a pair from one parent. In Prader-Willi syndrome, this can occur when both copies of chromosome 15 are from the mother.

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