BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB) | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 59 MCQs on BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB) with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concept...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of replication in eukaryotes?

    Answer: DNA replication occurs in the nucleus

    Explanation: DNA replication is catalyzed by DNA polymerase, not RNA polymerase. RNA polymerase is responsible for transcription (making RNA from DNA template), while DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands during replication. ---

  2. Q2. Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in the process of replication?

    Answer: RNA polymerase

    Explanation: RNA polymerase is involved in transcription, not replication. All other enzymes are essential for DNA replication: DNA polymerase synthesizes new strands, ligase joins Okazaki fragments, helicase unwinds the DNA double helix, and primase synthesizes RNA primers. ---

  3. Q3. Which of the following requires an RNA primer in order to proceed?

    Answer: C and D

    Explanation: Both DNA replication and PCR require RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis. DNA polymerases cannot start synthesis de novo; they need a 3'-OH group provided by an RNA primer. ---

  4. Q4. In eukaryotes, transcription and translation occur in...

    Answer: Nucleus and Cytosol respectively

    Explanation: In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus where DNA is located, and translation occurs in the cytosol on ribosomes. This spatial separation allows for RNA processing before translation. ---

  5. Q5. The function of tRNA is to...

    Answer: A and B

    Explanation: Both options A and B describe the same function using different wording. tRNA molecules pick up specific amino acids in the cytosol and transport them to the ribosome for protein synthesis. ---

  6. Q6. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Xeroderma pigmentosum?

    Answer: It is a condition that occurs due to a missense mutation

    Explanation: Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused by mutations in DNA repair genes (often missense mutations), leading to defective nucleotide excision repair. This results in increased sensitivity to UV radiation and higher risk of skin cancer. ---

  7. Q7. Which of the following is important in maintaining DNA replication fidelity?

    Answer: DNA polymerase 3'–5' proofreading enzyme

    Explanation: DNA polymerase has 3'-5' exonuclease activity (proofreading function) that removes incorrectly incorporated nucleotides, ensuring high fidelity during DNA replication. ---

  8. Q8. Which of the following is NOT a type of point mutation?

    Answer: Frameshift

    Explanation: Frameshift mutations involve insertion or deletion of nucleotides that change the reading frame, not single nucleotide changes. Point mutations are single nucleotide substitutions. ---

  9. Q9. DNA replication in Polymerase Chain Reaction is catalyzed by

    Answer: Taq DNA polymerase

    Explanation: PCR uses Taq DNA polymerase, a thermostable enzyme from Thermus aquaticus that can withstand the high temperatures required for PCR cycling. ---

  10. Q10. Which of the following is TRUE about recombinant DNA technology?

    Answer: It involves the combination of a target DNA to a host DNA

    Explanation: Recombinant DNA technology involves combining DNA from different sources, typically inserting target DNA into a vector (host DNA) to create recombinant molecules. ---

  11. Q11. Post-transcriptional modification includes all the following EXCEPT

    Answer: Phosphorylation

    Explanation: Phosphorylation is a post-translational modification of proteins, not a post-transcriptional modification of RNA. Post-transcriptional modifications include capping, splicing, editing, and polyadenylation. ---

  12. Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE ?

    Answer: mRNA is important for replication

    Explanation: mRNA is not involved in DNA replication; it's involved in protein synthesis (translation). DNA replication uses DNA polymerase and other replication machinery. ---

  13. Q13. If one parent has genotype Br (black hair) and the other rr (red hair), possible genotypes of offspring are

    Answer: Br, Br, rr, rr

    Explanation: Cross: Br × rr produces 50% Br (black hair) and 50% rr (red hair) offspring. ---

  14. Q14. Which selection type fits the CCR5 mutant gene?

    Answer: Directional

    Explanation: The CCR5-Δ32 mutation provides resistance to HIV infection, representing directional selection favoring the mutant allele in populations exposed to HIV. ---

  15. Q15. Genetic drift is defined as

    Answer: Change in gene frequency due to random effects in a small population

    Explanation: Genetic drift is the random change in allele frequencies that occurs in small populations due to sampling effects during reproduction. ---

  16. Q16. A population loses 95% of fish due to an electrical fault. What type of genetic drift is this?

    Answer: Bottleneck event

    Explanation: A bottleneck event occurs when a population's size is significantly reduced, leading to loss of genetic diversity. The surviving 5% represent a genetic bottleneck. ---

  17. Q17. In a population, 4% have sickle cell anemia. What percentage is heterozygous (advantageous to malaria)?

    Answer: 16%

    Explanation: If q² = 0.04, then q = 0.2 and p = 0.8. Heterozygous frequency = 2pq = 2(0.8)(0.2) = 0.32 or 32%. ---

  18. Q18. What selection type fits sickle cell anemia?

    Answer: Stabilizing

    Explanation: Sickle cell anemia represents balancing/stabilizing selection where heterozygotes have a survival advantage (malaria resistance) maintaining both alleles in the population. ---

  19. Q19. A small population exhibits high frequency of "blue-skin" from one couple. This is an example of

    Answer: Genetic drift

    Explanation: In small populations, rare traits can increase in frequency due to genetic drift, especially if they originate from a small number of founders. ---

  20. Q20. High crossover frequency between two genes is most likely due to

    Answer: The genes being far apart on the same chromosome

    Explanation: Crossover frequency is proportional to the physical distance between genes on the same chromosome. Genes far apart have higher recombination rates. ---

  21. Q21. If 16% show recessive phenotype in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, percentage of heterozygotes is

    Answer: 48%

    Explanation: If q² = 0.16, then q = 0.4 and p = 0.6. Heterozygous frequency = 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48 or 48%. ---

  22. Q22. In a population of 200, 98 show recessive phenotype. Predicted heterozygous frequency is

    Answer: 42%

    Explanation: q² = 98/200 = 0.49, so q = 0.7 and p = 0.3. Heterozygous frequency = 2pq = 2(0.3)(0.7) = 0.42 or 42%. ---

  23. Q23. Albinism occurs in 1 in 10,000. What is the frequency of the dominant allele?

    Answer: 0.99

    Explanation: q² = 1/10,000 = 0.0001, so q = 0.01. Therefore, p = 1 - 0.01 = 0.99. ---

  24. Q24. Carrier frequency for albinism (above question) is

    Answer: 0.02

    Explanation: Using p = 0.99 and q = 0.01 from previous question, carrier frequency = 2pq = 2(0.99)(0.01) = 0.0198 ≈ 0.02. ---

  25. Q25. Energy acquisition by glucose fermentation requires

    Answer: Substrate-level phosphorylation

    Explanation: Fermentation produces ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation without requiring electron transport or oxygen. ---

  26. Q26. Embden-Meyerhof and Entner-Doudoroff pathways are also called

    Answer: Glycolysis

    Explanation: Both pathways are variants of glycolysis - the metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose to produce energy. ---

  27. Q27. Electron acceptors in anaerobic respiration include

    Answer: All of the above

    Explanation: In anaerobic respiration, various compounds serve as terminal electron acceptors including nitrate, sulfate, and fumarate. ---

  28. Q28. Most common CO₂ fixation pathway in chemolithotrophs

    Answer: Calvin Cycle

    Explanation: The Calvin cycle (Calvin-Benson-Bassham cycle) is the most widespread CO₂ fixation pathway used by chemolithotrophs. ---

  29. Q29. Passive diffusion is driven by

    Answer: Concentration difference

    Explanation: Passive diffusion is primarily driven by concentration gradients, with molecules moving from high to low concentration without energy input. ---

  30. Q30. Terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is

    Answer: Oxygen

    Explanation: In aerobic respiration, oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain. ---

  31. Q31. Energy acquisition by glucose fermentation requires

    Answer: Substrate-level phosphorylation

    Explanation: Same as Question 25 - fermentation relies on substrate-level phosphorylation for ATP production. ---

  32. Q32. Role of bacteriochlorophyll in anoxygenic photosynthesis is to

    Answer: Use light energy to energize electrons

    Explanation: Bacteriochlorophyll captures light energy and uses it to excite electrons, initiating the photosynthetic electron transport process. ---

  33. Q33. Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria oxidize

    Answer: Sulfide

    Explanation: Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria typically oxidize sulfide compounds (like H₂S) rather than water, and don't produce oxygen. ---

  34. Q34. Major energy capture in aerobic glucose respiration occurs by

    Answer: Electron transport from NADH

    Explanation: Most ATP in aerobic respiration is produced through oxidative phosphorylation via electron transport from NADH and FADH₂. ---

  35. Q35. Which of the following is NOT a plasma membrane function?

    Answer: Chromosome segregation

    Explanation: Chromosome segregation occurs in the nucleus/cytoplasm during cell division, not at the plasma membrane level. # GENETICS MCQ ANSWERS

  36. Q36. For a recessive trait to appear, the individual must receive the variant genes from both parents.

    Answer: True

    Explanation: For a recessive trait to be expressed, an individual must be homozygous recessive (have two copies of the recessive allele), meaning they must inherit one recessive allele from each parent.

  37. Q37. Assume B is a dominant allele for black hair and r is a recessive allele for red hair. If one parent has black hair with the genotype Br, and the other parent has red hair with the genotype rr, what are the potential genotypes for their children?

    Answer: Br, Br, rr, rr

    Explanation: Cross: Br × rr. The Br parent can contribute B or r, while the rr parent can only contribute r. Possible offspring: Br (50%) and rr (50%).

  38. Q38. Which selection type fits CCR5 mutant gene?

    Answer: Directional

    Explanation: The CCR5-Δ32 mutation provides resistance to HIV infection, creating a selective advantage in environments where HIV is present, leading to directional selection favoring the mutant allele.

  39. Q39. The characteristics an individual expresses due to their genetic makeup are called:

    Answer: Phenotypes

    Explanation: Phenotype refers to the observable characteristics or traits of an organism that result from the interaction of its genotype with the environment.

  40. Q40. Genetic drift can be defined as:

    Answer: Gene frequencies change over time because of random effects due to a small population size

    Explanation: Genetic drift is the random change in allele frequencies in a population, and its effects are more pronounced in smaller populations.

  41. Q41. Imagine you raise goldfish as a pet dealer. You have over 10,000 fish in one large tank but, due to an electrical problem, 95% of the fish perish one night. The remaining 5% are left to breed and repopulate, passing their genes and traits on to future generations. What type of genetic drift would this be considered?

    Answer: Bottleneck event

    Explanation: A bottleneck event occurs when a population's size is significantly reduced for at least one generation, leading to reduced genetic diversity.

  42. Q42. In a certain group of African people, 4 percent are born with sickle cell anemia. What percentage of the group has the selective advantage of being more resistant to malaria than those individuals who are homozygous for normal hemoglobin or for sickle cell anemia?

    Answer: 16%

    Explanation: If 4% have sickle cell anemia (ss), then q² = 0.04, so q = 0.2 and p = 0.8. Heterozygotes (Ss) have malaria resistance: 2pq = 2(0.8)(0.2) = 0.32 = 32%.

  43. Q43. Which selection type fits sickle cell anemia?

    Answer: Stabilizing

    Explanation: Sickle cell anemia shows balancing selection (a type of stabilizing selection) where heterozygotes have an advantage (malaria resistance) over both homozygotes.

  44. Q44. In a small group of people living in a remote area, there is a high incidence of "blue skin," a condition that results from a variation in the structure of hemoglobin. All of the "blue skinned" residents can trace their ancestry to one couple, who were among the original settlers of this region. The unusually high frequency of "blue skin" in the area is an example of:

    Answer: Genetic drift

    Explanation: This is specifically the founder effect, a type of genetic drift where a small founding population leads to high frequency of certain alleles in the derived population.

  45. Q45. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a high rate of crossing over between two genes?

    Answer: The two genes are far apart on the same chromosome

    Explanation: Crossover frequency is directly proportional to the distance between genes on a chromosome. The farther apart genes are, the higher the probability of crossover events between them.

  46. Q46. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The gene of interest has two alleles, with 16% of the population portraying the recessive phenotype. Which percentage of the population is heterozygous?

    Answer: 48%

    Explanation: If 16% show recessive phenotype, then q² = 0.16, so q = 0.4 and p = 0.6. Heterozygotes = 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48 = 48%.

  47. Q47. If 98 out of 200 individuals in a population express the recessive phenotype, what percentage of the population would you predict to be heterozygous?

    Answer: 42%

    Explanation: Recessive frequency = 98/200 = 0.49, so q² = 0.49, q = 0.7, p = 0.3. Heterozygotes = 2pq = 2(0.3)(0.7) = 0.42 = 42%.

  48. Q48. Albinism is a hereditary disease due to absence of the skin pigment melanin. The allele for albinism is recessive to the allele for normal pigment. One person in 10,000 is albino. What is the frequency of the dominant allele?

    Answer: 0.99

    Explanation: If 1/10,000 is albino, then q² = 0.0001, so q = 0.01. Therefore, p = 1 - 0.01 = 0.99.

  49. Q49. What is the frequency for carriers in Question 14 above?

    Answer: 0.02

    Explanation: Carriers are heterozygotes: 2pq = 2(0.99)(0.01) = 0.0198 ≈ 0.02.

  50. Q50. This is true of populations which are included in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

    Answer: Mating is random

    Explanation: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium requires random mating, large population size, no migration, no mutation, and no natural selection.

  51. Q51. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium operates in the absence of:

    Answer: All of these

    Explanation: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium requires the absence of all evolutionary forces: no gene flow (migration), no mutation, and no natural selection.

  52. Q52. In the Caucasian population of the US, 1 in 2500 babies is affected by a recessive condition cystic fibrosis. In this population, the frequency of the dominant allele is:

    Answer: 0.98

    Explanation: If 1/2500 has cystic fibrosis, then q² = 0.0004, so q = 0.02. Therefore, p = 1 - 0.02 = 0.98.

  53. Q53. In the Caucasian population of the US, 1 in 2500 babies is affected by a recessive condition cystic fibrosis. In this population, the frequency of the recessive allele is:

    Answer: 0.02

    Explanation: If 1/2500 has cystic fibrosis, then q² = 0.0004, so q = √0.0004 = 0.02.

  54. Q54. A measure of inbreeding is the "inbreeding coefficient", F. F = 1 - (obs hets)/(exp hets). In a population which is inbred, the F value is:

    Answer: 0.34

    Explanation: The inbreeding coefficient F ranges from 0 (no inbreeding) to 1 (complete inbreeding). Any positive value indicates some level of inbreeding.

  55. Q55. Cri-du-chat is caused by a deletion on the short arm of:

    Answer: Chromosome 5

    Explanation: Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by a deletion on the short arm (p arm) of chromosome 5, specifically a deletion of 5p15.2 or 5p15.3.

  56. Q56. A population with an inbreeding coefficient F value of 0.20 shows that the population is:

    Answer: Homozygous

    Explanation: An F value of 0.20 indicates 20% reduction in heterozygosity compared to Hardy-Weinberg expectations, meaning increased homozygosity due to inbreeding.

  57. Q57. Linkage as the distance between two genes :

    Answer: Decreases, increases

    Explanation: As the physical distance between two genes on a chromosome increases, the likelihood of crossover between them increases, thus linkage (tendency to be inherited together) decreases.

  58. Q58. A selection type which works by constantly removing individuals from both ends of a phenotype distribution thus maintaining the same mean over time is:

    Answer: Stabilizing

    Explanation: Stabilizing selection favors intermediate phenotypes and selects against extreme phenotypes, maintaining the population mean while reducing variance.

  59. Q59. When a certain gene can be pinpointed as a cause of disease, we refer to it as:

    Answer: Mendelian disorder

    Explanation: Mendelian disorders are caused by mutations in a single gene and follow Mendel's laws of inheritance, making them easier to pinpoint and predict. --- ## SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS [25 MARKS]

View on OmpathStudy