BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB) – 59 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

59 Year 2: Molecular Biology exam questions on BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB) for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations a

This MCQ set contains 59 questions on BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB) in the Year 2: Molecular Biology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of replication in eukaryotes?

  1. A. DNA replication occurs in the nucleus
  2. B. DNA replication begins at the replication fork
  3. C. DNA replication is catalyzed by DNA polymerase
  4. D. DNA replication occurs prior to cell division
  5. E. DNA replication is catalyzed by RNA polymerase

Correct answer: E – DNA replication is catalyzed by RNA polymerase

DNA replication is catalyzed by DNA polymerase, not RNA polymerase. RNA polymerase is responsible for transcription (making RNA from DNA template), while DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands during replication. ---

Q2: Question 2 Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in the process of replication?

  1. A. DNA polymerase
  2. B. RNA polymerase
  3. C. Ligase
  4. D. Helicase
  5. E. Primase

Correct answer: B – RNA polymerase

RNA polymerase is involved in transcription, not replication. All other enzymes are essential for DNA replication: DNA polymerase synthesizes new strands, ligase joins Okazaki fragments, helicase unwinds the DNA double helix, and primase synthesizes RNA primers. ---

Q3: Question 3 Which of the following requires an RNA primer in order to proceed?

  1. A. Transcription
  2. B. Translation
  3. C. Replication
  4. D. Polymerase chain reaction
  5. E. C and D

Correct answer: E – C and D

Both DNA replication and PCR require RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis. DNA polymerases cannot start synthesis de novo; they need a 3'-OH group provided by an RNA primer. ---

Q4: Question 4 In eukaryotes, transcription and translation occur in...

  1. A. Both occur in the cytosol
  2. B. Cytosol and Nucleus respectively
  3. C. Ribosome and Nucleus respectively
  4. D. Nucleus and Cytosol respectively
  5. E. Nucleus and Ribosome respectively

Correct answer: D – Nucleus and Cytosol respectively

In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus where DNA is located, and translation occurs in the cytosol on ribosomes. This spatial separation allows for RNA processing before translation. ---

Q5: Question 5 The function of tRNA is to...

  1. A. Transfer an amino acid to the ribosome from the cytosol
  2. B. Carry an amino acid from the cytosol to the ribosome
  3. C. Carry an amino acid from the ribosome to the cytosol
  4. D. Transfer an amino acid from the ribosome to the cytosol
  5. E. A and B

Correct answer: E – A and B

Both options A and B describe the same function using different wording. tRNA molecules pick up specific amino acids in the cytosol and transport them to the ribosome for protein synthesis. ---

Q6: Question 6 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Xeroderma pigmentosum?

  1. A. It is a condition that occurs due to a missense mutation
  2. B. It is a condition that occurs due to a frameshift mutation
  3. C. It causes an increased risk of kidney cancer
  4. D. It is a condition that is not inherited
  5. E. It leads to reduced ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen

Correct answer: A – It is a condition that occurs due to a missense mutation

Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused by mutations in DNA repair genes (often missense mutations), leading to defective nucleotide excision repair. This results in increased sensitivity to UV radiation and higher risk of skin cancer. ---

Q7: Question 7 Which of the following is important in maintaining DNA replication fidelity?

  1. A. DNA polymerase 3'–5' proofreading enzyme
  2. B. RNA polymerase 3'–5' proofreading enzyme
  3. C. Thymine dimer exonuclease
  4. D. None of the above
  5. E. B and C

Correct answer: A – DNA polymerase 3'–5' proofreading enzyme

DNA polymerase has 3'-5' exonuclease activity (proofreading function) that removes incorrectly incorporated nucleotides, ensuring high fidelity during DNA replication. ---

Q8: Question 8 Which of the following is NOT a type of point mutation?

  1. A. Substitution
  2. B. Frameshift
  3. C. Macrolesions
  4. D. Microlesions
  5. E. Multiple lesions

Correct answer: B – Frameshift

Frameshift mutations involve insertion or deletion of nucleotides that change the reading frame, not single nucleotide changes. Point mutations are single nucleotide substitutions. ---

Q9: Question 9 DNA replication in Polymerase Chain Reaction is catalyzed by

  1. A. DNA polymerase
  2. B. RNA polymerase
  3. C. Taq DNA polymerase
  4. D. Taq RNA polymerase
  5. E. Topoisomerases

Correct answer: C – Taq DNA polymerase

PCR uses Taq DNA polymerase, a thermostable enzyme from Thermus aquaticus that can withstand the high temperatures required for PCR cycling. ---

Q10: Which of the following is TRUE about recombinant DNA technology?

  1. A. It is important for the synthesis of DNA
  2. B. It involves the combination of a target DNA to a host DNA
  3. C. It occurs naturally in higher organisms
  4. D. It is important in the process of cloning
  5. E. It involves a process of hybridization of target DNA to a specific DNA probe

Correct answer: B – It involves the combination of a target DNA to a host DNA

Recombinant DNA technology involves combining DNA from different sources, typically inserting target DNA into a vector (host DNA) to create recombinant molecules. ---

Q11: Post-transcriptional modification includes all the following EXCEPT

  1. A. 5' capping
  2. B. mRNA splicing
  3. C. Phosphorylation
  4. D. RNA editing
  5. E. Tailing of the 3' end

Correct answer: C – Phosphorylation

Phosphorylation is a post-translational modification of proteins, not a post-transcriptional modification of RNA. Post-transcriptional modifications include capping, splicing, editing, and polyadenylation. ---

Q12: Question 12 Which of the following statements is FALSE ?

  1. A. mRNA in prokaryotes is polycistronic
  2. B. mRNA is fully synthesised before translation in eukaryotes
  3. C. mRNA and protein synthesis occur simultaneously in prokaryotes
  4. D. mRNA is important for replication
  5. E. mRNA nucleotide sequence is complementary to template DNA strand

Correct answer: D – mRNA is important for replication

mRNA is not involved in DNA replication; it's involved in protein synthesis (translation). DNA replication uses DNA polymerase and other replication machinery. ---

Q13: Question 13 If one parent has genotype Br (black hair) and the other rr (red hair), possible genotypes of offspring are

  1. A. BB, rr, rr
  2. B. Br, rB, rr, BB
  3. C. Br, Br, rr, rr
  4. D. Br, Br, rB, rB

Correct answer: C – Br, Br, rr, rr

Cross: Br × rr produces 50% Br (black hair) and 50% rr (red hair) offspring. ---

Q14: Question 14 Which selection type fits the CCR5 mutant gene?

  1. A. Stabilizing
  2. B. Disruptive
  3. C. Directional
  4. D. None of the above

Correct answer: C – Directional

The CCR5-Δ32 mutation provides resistance to HIV infection, representing directional selection favoring the mutant allele in populations exposed to HIV. ---

Q15: Question 15 Genetic drift is defined as

  1. A. Change in gene frequency due to random effects in a large population
  2. B. Change in gene frequency due to random effects in a small population
  3. C. Stable gene frequency in a small population
  4. D. Change in gene frequency due to predictable effects

Correct answer: B – Change in gene frequency due to random effects in a small population

Genetic drift is the random change in allele frequencies that occurs in small populations due to sampling effects during reproduction. ---

Q16: Question 16 A population loses 95% of fish due to an electrical fault. What type of genetic drift is this?

  1. A. Bottleneck event
  2. B. Founder effect
  3. C. Extinction
  4. D. Natural selection

Correct answer: A – Bottleneck event

A bottleneck event occurs when a population's size is significantly reduced, leading to loss of genetic diversity. The surviving 5% represent a genetic bottleneck. ---

Q17: Question 17 In a population, 4% have sickle cell anemia. What percentage is heterozygous (advantageous to malaria)?

  1. A. 2%
  2. B. 4%
  3. C. 8%
  4. D. 16%
  5. E. 32%

Correct answer: E – 32%

If q² = 0.04, then q = 0.2 and p = 0.8. Heterozygous frequency = 2pq = 2(0.8)(0.2) = 0.32 or 32%. ---

Q18: What selection type fits sickle cell anemia?

  1. A. Stabilizing
  2. B. Disruptive
  3. C. Directional
  4. D. None of the above
  5. E. maintaining both alleles in the population.

Correct answer: A – Stabilizing

Sickle cell anemia represents balancing/stabilizing selection where heterozygotes have a survival advantage (malaria resistance) maintaining both alleles in the population. ---

Q19: Question 19 A small population exhibits high frequency of "blue-skin" from one couple. This is an example of

  1. A. Mutation
  2. B. Genetic drift
  3. C. Natural selection
  4. D. Sexual selection
  5. E. Heterozygote advantage

Correct answer: B – Genetic drift

In small populations, rare traits can increase in frequency due to genetic drift, especially if they originate from a small number of founders. ---

Q20: High crossover frequency between two genes is most likely due to

  1. A. The genes being far apart on the same chromosome
  2. B. Both located near the centromere
  3. C. Being sex-linked
  4. D. Coding for the same protein
  5. E. Located on different chromosomes

Correct answer: A – The genes being far apart on the same chromosome

Crossover frequency is proportional to the physical distance between genes on the same chromosome. Genes far apart have higher recombination rates. ---

Q21: Question 21 If 16% show recessive phenotype in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, percentage of heterozygotes is

  1. A. 48%
  2. B. 36%
  3. C. 16%
  4. D. 24%

Correct answer: A – 48%

If q² = 0.16, then q = 0.4 and p = 0.6. Heterozygous frequency = 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48 or 48%. ---

Q22: Question 22 In a population of 200, 98 show recessive phenotype. Predicted heterozygous frequency is

  1. A. 70%
  2. B. 30%
  3. C. 42%
  4. D. 49%

Correct answer: C – 42%

q² = 98/200 = 0.49, so q = 0.7 and p = 0.3. Heterozygous frequency = 2pq = 2(0.3)(0.7) = 0.42 or 42%. ---

Q23: Question 23 Albinism occurs in 1 in 10,000. What is the frequency of the dominant allele?

  1. A. 0.01
  2. B. 0.10
  3. C. 0.99
  4. D. 0.09

Correct answer: C – 0.99

q² = 1/10,000 = 0.0001, so q = 0.01. Therefore, p = 1 - 0.01 = 0.99. ---

Q24: Question 24 Carrier frequency for albinism (above question) is

  1. A. 0.02
  2. B. 0.20
  3. C. 0.32
  4. D. 0.48

Correct answer: A – 0.02

Using p = 0.99 and q = 0.01 from previous question, carrier frequency = 2pq = 2(0.99)(0.01) = 0.0198 ≈ 0.02. ---

Q25: Question 25 Energy acquisition by glucose fermentation requires

  1. A. Electron transport from NADH
  2. B. Substrate-level phosphorylation
  3. C. Long-chain fatty acid oxidation
  4. D. Formic-hydrogen lyase
  5. E. Both A and B

Correct answer: B – Substrate-level phosphorylation

Fermentation produces ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation without requiring electron transport or oxygen. ---

View on OmpathStudy