Medical Biochemistry II PAPER A (MBMB 2200) | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 16 MCQs on Medical Biochemistry II PAPER A (MBMB 2200) with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and pre...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. The probability that disease is present when a test result falls outside reference interval is called the test's

    Answer: Positive predictive value

    Explanation: Positive predictive value (PPV) represents the probability that a patient actually has the disease when the test result is positive (outside reference interval). It depends on both test characteristics and disease prevalence. ---

  2. Q2. The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is

    Answer: Glucose

    Explanation: Glucose is the primary energy source for neurons and red blood cells. Neurons have limited ability to use alternative fuels, and RBCs lack mitochondria, making glucose essential for their ATP production via glycolysis. ---

  3. Q3. Ammonia is an effective and important urinary buffer for which of the following reasons

    Answer: The walls of the renal tubules are impermeable to NH4+

    Explanation: NH3 diffuses into tubular fluid where it combines with H+ to form NH4+. The tubular membrane is impermeable to NH4+, effectively trapping it in urine and facilitating acid excretion. ---

  4. Q4. Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body

    Answer: Conversion to a nucleic acid

    Explanation: While carbohydrates can provide ribose for nucleic acid synthesis, they are not directly converted to nucleic acids. The other options are all direct metabolic fates of carbohydrates. ---

  5. Q5. The amount of potassium excreted by the kidney will decrease if

    Answer: Circulating aldosterone levels increase

    Explanation: Aldosterone promotes Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the distal nephron. However, when aldosterone levels increase, it also enhances overall K+ conservation mechanisms, leading to decreased K+ excretion. ---

  6. Q6. Dietary fats are important because they

    Answer: Help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins

    Explanation: Dietary fats are essential for absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) in the intestine. These vitamins require lipid micelles for proper absorption. ---

  7. Q7. An increase in the concentration of plasma potassium causes increases in

    Answer: Secretion of aldosterone

    Explanation: Hyperkalemia directly stimulates aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex, which promotes K+ excretion in the distal nephron to restore K+ homeostasis. ---

  8. Q8. When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly

    Answer: Urea

    Explanation: Protein deamination produces ammonia, which is converted to urea in the liver via the urea cycle. Urea is the major nitrogenous waste product excreted in human urine. ---

  9. Q9. Glomerular filtration rate would be increased by

    Answer: A decrease in the concentration of plasma protein

    Explanation: Decreased plasma protein concentration reduces oncotic pressure, decreasing the force opposing filtration and thereby increasing GFR. ---

  10. Q10. Lipogenesis occurs when

    Answer: Cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

    Explanation: Lipogenesis (fat synthesis) occurs during fed state when energy (ATP) and substrate (glucose) are abundant, allowing conversion of excess carbohydrates to fat for storage. ---

  11. Q11. The greatest amount of hydrogen ion secreted by the proximal tubule is associated with

    Answer: Reabsorption of bicarbonate ion

    Explanation: About 80-90% of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule via H+ secretion, making bicarbonate reabsorption the major mechanism of proximal H+ secretion. ---

  12. Q12. Oxidative deamination takes place in the

    Answer: Liver

    Explanation: The liver is the primary site of oxidative deamination where amino acids are deaminated to produce ammonia, which is then converted to urea. ---

  13. Q13. Urinalysis is comprised of all of the following except

    Answer: All of the above

    Explanation: This is a trick question. Urinalysis includes all listed components: macroscopic (physical), chemical (dipstick), and microscopic analysis. ---

  14. Q14. Glycogen is formed in the liver during the

    Answer: Absorptive state

    Explanation: Glycogenesis (glycogen synthesis) occurs during the absorptive state when glucose is abundant after eating, allowing storage of excess glucose as glycogen. ---

  15. Q15. Urine that is not tested immediately or refrigerated before testing will give inaccurate results due to all of the following except

    Answer: Increased acidity

    Explanation: Urine typically becomes more alkaline (not acidic) upon standing due to bacterial conversion of urea to ammonia. The other changes all occur with delayed testing. ---

  16. Q16. Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center

    Answer: Vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels

    Explanation: Heat-promoting center activation causes vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels to conserve body heat by reducing heat loss

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