Practice 60 MCQs on Respiratory Pathology with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.
Q1. A 45-year-old male smoker presents with chronic productive cough for 4 months every year for the past 3 years. What is the histologic hallmark in the large airways?
Answer: Enlarged mucus-secreting submucosal glands
Explanation: Chronic bronchitis is defined clinically (3 months/year × 2 years). The histologic hallmark is enlarged submucosal mucous glands, quantified by the Reid index ( 0.4 = abnormal).
Q2. A child presents with inspiratory stridor and harsh barking cough. The most common causative agent is:
Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is most commonly caused by parainfluenza virus in children. RSV can also cause it but is less common.
Q3. A 30-year-old presents with spontaneous pneumothorax. The most likely underlying emphysema type is:
Answer: Distal acinar (paraseptal) emphysema
Explanation: Paraseptal emphysema affects the distal acinus adjacent to the pleura, forming bullae. Rupture of subpleural bullae causes spontaneous pneumothorax in young adults.
Q4. Which cytokine is released within 30 minutes of acute lung injury and drives neutrophil chemotaxis?
Answer: Interleukin-8
Explanation: IL-8 is released by pulmonary macrophages within 30 minutes of an acute insult. It is a potent neutrophil chemotactic and activating agent central to ARDS pathogenesis.
Q5. The FEV1/FVC ratio is characteristically decreased in which condition?
Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation: COPD (obstructive disease) reduces FEV1 significantly while FVC is near normal, giving a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio. Restrictive diseases maintain a near-normal ratio.
Q6. A patient with α1-antitrypsin deficiency develops emphysema. Which type and distribution is expected?
Answer: Panacinar, lower lobe predominance
Explanation: α1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to panacinar emphysema affecting the entire acinus, with lower lobe predominance. Over 80% of patients with this deficiency develop symptomatic emphysema.
Q7. Which morphologic finding is the HALLMARK of ARDS on microscopy?
Answer: Hyaline membranes lining alveolar ducts
Explanation: Hyaline membranes (fibrin-rich edema fluid mixed with necrotic epithelial cells) lining distended alveolar ducts are the pathologic hallmark of ARDS/diffuse alveolar damage.
Q8. Streptococcal tonsillitis is important to recognize early because it can lead to all EXCEPT:
Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis is caused by EBV, not streptococcal infection. The three important complications of streptococcal tonsillitis are quinsy, glomerulonephritis, and rheumatic fever.
Q9. A biopsy shows polypoid plugs of organizing connective tissue within alveolar ducts, all of the same age, with normal underlying lung architecture. The diagnosis is:
Answer: Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
Explanation: COP (formerly BOOP) is characterized by polypoid plugs of loose organizing connective tissue within alveolar ducts and bronchioles. All connective tissue is the same age (no temporal heterogeneity) and underlying architecture is preserved.
Q10. Which of the following is TRUE about nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
Answer: Undifferentiated type is most common and most linked to EBV
Explanation: Undifferentiated carcinoma is the most common variant and most closely associated with EBV. EBV genome is found in virtually ALL nasopharyngeal carcinomas regardless of geography.
Q11. A farmer presents with fever, cough, and dyspnea 6 hours after entering a barn with moldy hay. Serum shows precipitating antibodies. BAL shows increased CD4+ and CD8+ T cells. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (Farmer's Lung) presents 4–8 hours after antigen exposure. Both Type III and Type IV hypersensitivity are involved. BAL shows increased CD4+ AND CD8+ T cells, distinguishing it from sarcoidosis (CD4+ only).
Q12. A patient with asthma dies during status asthmaticus. Whorls of shed epithelium found within mucous plugs are called:
Answer: Curschmann spirals
Explanation: Curschmann spirals are whorls of shed epithelium found in the mucous plugs of asthma. Charcot-Leyden crystals are eosinophil protein crystalloids — both are found in asthma plugs.
Q13. The Reid index in chronic bronchitis is:
Answer: Ratio of submucosal gland thickness to bronchial wall thickness
Explanation: The Reid index measures submucosal gland layer thickness divided by bronchial wall thickness. Normal is ≤0.4; chronic bronchitis exceeds 0.4 due to gland hypertrophy.
Q14. Which lung cancer subtype is almost always metastatic at presentation and should NOT be treated surgically?
Answer: Small cell carcinoma
Explanation: SCLC is almost always metastatic at presentation. It is treated with chemotherapy, not surgery. Despite initial sensitivity to chemotherapy, it invariably recurs with a median survival of 1 year.
Q15. Silicosis is associated with increased susceptibility to which infection?
Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Silicosis depresses cell-mediated immunity and impairs macrophage killing of mycobacteria. The combination of silicosis and TB is called silicotuberculosis, with nodules showing central caseation.
Q16. A 35-year-old presents with hemoptysis, anemia, diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Lung biopsy shows linear IgG deposition. The target antigen is:
Answer: α3 chain of collagen IV
Explanation: Goodpasture syndrome is caused by antibodies targeting the noncollagenous domain of the α3 chain of collagen IV, affecting both pulmonary and glomerular basement membranes.
Q17. A child develops multiple laryngeal papillomas that recur after excision. The causative HPV types are:
Answer: HPV types 6 and 11
Explanation: Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis in children is caused by HPV types 6 and 11, transmitted vertically during delivery. These do not become malignant and often regress at puberty.
Q18. Which emphysema type is 20 times more common than panacinar emphysema and is most associated with cigarette smoking?
Answer: Centriacinar emphysema
Explanation: Centriacinar (centrilobular) emphysema affects the central/proximal acinus (respiratory bronchioles), sparing distal alveoli. It is strongly associated with cigarette smoking and affects the upper lobes predominantly.
Q19. In sarcoidosis, hypercalcemia occurs due to:
Answer: Active vitamin D production by granuloma macrophages
Explanation: In sarcoidosis, mononuclear phagocytes within granulomas produce active vitamin D (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D), increasing intestinal calcium absorption and causing hypercalcemia.
Q20. A 60-year-old asbestos worker develops progressive lower lobe fibrosis. Microscopy reveals interstitial fibrosis with golden-brown beaded rods. These structures consist of:
Answer: Asbestos fibers coated with iron-containing protein
Explanation: Asbestos bodies are asbestos fibers coated with iron-containing proteinaceous material derived from phagocyte ferritin. They appear as golden-brown, fusiform or beaded rods with a translucent center.
Q21. The "hygiene hypothesis" in asthma suggests that:
Answer: Eradication of infections alters immune homeostasis promoting allergic responses
Explanation: The hygiene hypothesis proposes that eradication of infections alters immune homeostasis and promotes allergic and other harmful immune responses, explaining the increased asthma incidence in Western countries.
Q22. Which of the following is the most common manifestation of asbestos exposure?
Answer: Pleural plaques
Explanation: Pleural plaques are the most common manifestation of asbestos exposure. They are well-circumscribed plaques of dense collagen, often calcified, on the parietal pleura. They are usually asymptomatic.
Q23. In Wegener granulomatosis, which ANCA subtype is positive in approximately 95% of cases?
Answer: c-ANCA (PR3-ANCA)
Explanation: Wegener granulomatosis is associated with c-ANCA (PR3-ANCA — proteinase 3 antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) in approximately 95% of cases. The classic triad includes upper respiratory, lower respiratory, and renal involvement.
Q24. Lobar pneumonia evolves through four stages. What characterizes the "red hepatization" stage?
Answer: Alveoli packed with neutrophils, red cells, and fibrin
Explanation: Red hepatization follows congestion and is characterized by liver-like consistency of the lung. Alveolar spaces are packed with neutrophils, red blood cells, and fibrin — giving the red, firm appearance.
Q25. A patient with HIV and CD4 count of 150 cells/µL develops bilateral ground-glass perihilar infiltrates. BAL shows foamy alveolar exudate on H&E. GMS stain confirms the diagnosis. The organism is:
Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci
Explanation: PCP (Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia) is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS when CD4 <200. CXR shows bilateral ground-glass perihilar infiltrates. GMS stain shows cysts; H&E shows foamy exudate.
Q26. Which of the following is TRUE about kartagener syndrome?
Answer: It involves structural ciliary abnormalities causing bronchiectasis and male sterility
Explanation: Kartagener syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder. Structural ciliary abnormalities impair mucociliary clearance leading to bronchiectasis and recurrent infections, and reduce spermatozoa motility causing male sterility.
Q27. A 25-year-old non-smoker develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. CXR shows a collapsed right lung. He is found to have multiple contiguous enlarged air spaces near the right pleural surface. This is:
Answer: Distal acinar emphysema with bulla formation
Explanation: Distal acinar (paraseptal) emphysema is most often seen in young adults with spontaneous pneumothorax. It affects the distal acinus adjacent to the pleura, forming characteristic bullae that can rupture.
Q28. Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes on CXR is characteristic of:
Answer: Silicosis
Explanation: Eggshell calcification (calcium surrounding a zone lacking calcification in lymph nodes) is characteristic of silicosis. This represents calcium deposition around the periphery of the fibrotic lymph node.
Q29. In IPF, the histologic pattern is called UIP. The hallmark of UIP is:
Answer: Patchy interstitial fibrosis with temporal heterogeneity
Explanation: The hallmark of UIP (and thus IPF) is patchy interstitial fibrosis with temporal heterogeneity — early fibroblastic foci and late collagenous scars coexist in the same biopsy specimen.
Q30. Which of the following best describes the "Pink Puffer" in emphysema?
Answer: Patient with barrel chest, dyspnea, prolonged expiration, adequate oxygenation
Explanation: "Pink Puffer" describes pure emphysema: barrel chest, dyspnea, prolonged expiration (sitting hunched forward), but adequate oxygenation until late in disease. They hyperventilate to maintain oxygen levels.
Q31. More than 95% of pulmonary emboli arise from thrombi in:
Answer: Deep veins of the lower legs
Explanation: Over 95% of pulmonary emboli originate from thrombi in the deep veins of the lower legs, typically in the popliteal vein and larger veins above it.
Q32. A 50-year-old male develops progressive dyspnea over 2 years. Lung biopsy shows honeycomb fibrosis, fibroblastic foci, and temporal heterogeneity. Mean survival from diagnosis is approximately:
Answer: 3 years or less
Explanation: IPF has a mean survival of 3 years or less from diagnosis, with relentless progression despite medical therapy. Lung transplantation is the only definitive treatment.
Q33. Which cell type is central to the pathogenesis of atopic asthma?
Answer: TH2 helper T cells
Explanation: TH2 cells are central to atopic asthma. They produce IL-4 (IgE production), IL-5 (eosinophil activation), and IL-13 (mucus production), orchestrating the allergic inflammatory response.
Q34. A lung carcinoma secretes PTHrP causing hypercalcemia. Which histologic type is most commonly responsible?
Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation: Hypercalcemia from PTHrP secretion (paraneoplastic) is most commonly associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. This is distinct from hypercalcemia caused by osteolytic metastases.
Q35. The Ghon complex in primary tuberculosis consists of:
Answer: Subpleural nodule plus hilar/lymph node involvement
Explanation: The Ghon complex = Ghon focus (subpleural nodule, often upper part of lower lobe) + lymphatic drainage + hilar lymph node involvement. When calcified, it becomes the Ranke complex.
Q36. Which of the following is a feature of atypical pneumonia that distinguishes it from typical bacterial pneumonia?
Answer: Respiratory distress out of proportion to radiologic signs
Explanation: Atypical pneumonia is characterized by respiratory distress disproportionate to clinical/radiologic findings. Inflammation is predominantly interstitial (alveolar septa), with alveolar spaces generally clear.
Q37. In pulmonary hypertension, plexiform lesions are characteristic of which type?
Answer: Idiopathic (primary) pulmonary arterial hypertension
Explanation: Plexiform lesions — endothelial proliferation forming multiple lumina within small arteries — are characteristic of idiopathic (primary) pulmonary arterial hypertension, not secondary forms.
Q38. A patient with systemic sclerosis develops bilateral interstitial lung disease. The most common histologic pattern in systemic sclerosis lung involvement is:
Answer: NSIP (nonspecific interstitial pneumonia) pattern
Explanation: NSIP is the most common histologic pattern of lung involvement in collagen vascular diseases, particularly systemic sclerosis. UIP pattern can also occur but NSIP predominates.
Q39. A 70-year-old male with a 50-pack-year smoking history develops progressive dyspnea. Spirometry shows FEV1 40% predicted, FVC 75% predicted. What is the FEV1/FVC pattern?
Answer: Decreased ratio indicating obstructive disease
Explanation: FEV1/FVC = 40/75 = 0.53, which is significantly decreased (normal 0.70). This decreased ratio is the characteristic finding in obstructive lung disease such as COPD.
Q40. Aspirin-induced asthma occurs because aspirin:
Answer: Inhibits COX → shifts arachidonic acid toward leukotriene production
Explanation: Aspirin inhibits the cyclooxygenase (COX) pathway without affecting lipoxygenase, shifting arachidonic acid metabolism toward leukotriene production. Leukotrienes are potent bronchoconstrictors.
Q41. A coal miner develops multiple intensely black scars 2 cm in diameter in the lungs. This represents:
Answer: Silicotic nodule coalescence
Explanation: Progressive massive fibrosis (PMF/complicated CWP) is characterized by multiple intensely black scars 2 cm (up to 10 cm). It develops from coalescence of coal nodules and causes significant pulmonary dysfunction.
Q42. Coccidioidomycosis is pathognomonic for which histologic finding?
Answer: Large spherules containing endospores
Explanation: Coccidioides immitis forms characteristic spherules — large round structures containing endospores — in tissue. This is pathognomonic for coccidioidomycosis and distinguishes it from other fungal infections.
Q43. Which of the following regarding sarcoidosis lymph node involvement is CORRECT?
Answer: Peripheral lymphadenopathy occurs but nodes are nonadherent
Explanation: Sarcoidosis lymph nodes are characteristically "nonmatted" (nonadherent) and do not ulcerate — unlike tuberculosis where nodes are matted. Hilar/paratracheal nodes are enlarged in 75–90% of patients.
Q44. Contraction (cicatrization) atelectasis differs from the other types because:
Answer: It is irreversible due to fibrotic changes
Explanation: Contraction atelectasis occurs when local or generalized fibrosis hampers lung expansion and increases elastic recoil. Unlike resorption and compression atelectasis, it is irreversible.
Q45. In malignant mesothelioma, which immunohistochemical marker is positive (distinguishing it from adenocarcinoma)?
Answer: Calretinin
Explanation: Calretinin is positive in mesothelioma and negative in adenocarcinoma. Conversely, CEA, TTF-1, and MOC-31 are positive in adenocarcinoma and negative in mesothelioma.
Q46. A patient develops fever, dyspnea, and pulmonary infiltrates exactly matching the radiation field 4 months after thoracic radiotherapy. This is:
Answer: Radiation-induced acute pneumonitis
Explanation: Acute radiation pneumonitis occurs 1–6 months after therapy in up to 20% of patients. Infiltrates precisely corresponding to the radiation field is the diagnostic clue. It may resolve with corticosteroids.
Q47. A 10-year-old child presents with hemoptysis and anemia. Investigation shows no renal disease and no anti-GBM antibody. The most likely diagnosis is:
Answer: Pulmonary vasculitis
Explanation: Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis has the same pulmonary features as Goodpasture (hemoptysis, anemia, diffuse infiltrates) but with NO renal disease and NO anti-GBM antibody. It predominantly affects children.
Q48. Bronchiectasis in Kartagener syndrome results from:
Answer: Structural ciliary abnormalities impairing mucociliary clearance
Explanation: Kartagener syndrome involves structural ciliary abnormalities (autosomal recessive). Impaired mucociliary clearance leads to persistent infections, bronchial wall destruction, and bronchiectasis.
Q49. The BMPR-2 gene mutation in primary pulmonary hypertension leads to:
Answer: Abnormal endothelial and smooth muscle cell proliferation
Explanation: BMPR-2 normally inhibits cell proliferation. Loss-of-function mutations found in 50% of familial primary pulmonary hypertension cases result in abnormal vascular endothelial and smooth muscle proliferation.
Q50. Which organism most commonly causes community-acquired lobar pneumonia?
Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) causes more than 90% of lobar pneumonias and is the most common cause of community-acquired acute pneumonia overall.
Q51. DIP (desquamative interstitial pneumonia) gets its name because early pathologists thought the cells filling alveoli were desquamated epithelial cells. They are actually:
Answer: Alveolar macrophages accumulating due to smoking
Explanation: The cells filling alveoli in DIP are alveolar macrophages (smoker's macrophages) containing dusty-brown pigment. The name is a misnomer — early pathologists incorrectly identified them as desquamated epithelial cells.
Q52. A patient with cystic fibrosis develops severe irreversible airway dilation. The pathogenesis of bronchiectasis in this setting involves:
Answer: Viscid mucus causing obstruction followed by infection
Explanation: In cystic fibrosis, abnormally viscid mucus causes bronchial obstruction, predisposing to recurrent infections. The combination of obstruction and chronic necrotizing infection leads to irreversible bronchiectasis.
Q53. Carcinoid tumors of the lung arise from which cells?
Answer: Kulchitsky neuroendocrine cells in bronchial epithelium
Explanation: Pulmonary carcinoid tumors arise from Kulchitsky cells (neuroendocrine cells) of the bronchial epithelium. They represent 1–5% of lung tumors and are less aggressive than SCLC.
Q54. A pulmonary infarct after embolism has which morphologic shape?
Answer: Wedge-shaped, base at pleura, apex toward hilum
Explanation: Pulmonary infarcts are characteristically wedge-shaped with the base at the pleural surface and apex pointing toward the hilum. About 3/4 affect the lower lobes and more than half are multiple.
Q55. A young man uses intravenous drugs and develops pulmonary hypertension. Lung biopsy shows granulomas with birefringent crystals under polarized light. The likely substance is:
Answer: Magnesium trisilicate (talc) from IV drug mixture
Explanation: IV drug abuse introduces magnesium trisilicate (talc) as a filler in drug mixtures into the pulmonary microvasculature. Talc elicits a granulomatous response; vascular involvement leads to pulmonary hypertension. Talc crystals are visible by polarized light.
Q56. Which of the following differentiates NSIP from IPF on lung biopsy?
Answer: Absence of temporal heterogeneity in NSIP
Explanation: NSIP lacks the temporal heterogeneity of UIP/IPF. In NSIP, fibrosis is uniform (all the same age). Fibroblastic foci and honeycombing are typically absent in NSIP but present in IPF.
Q57. Histoplasma capsulatum infection is associated with which geographic reservoir?
Answer: Soil enriched with bird and bat droppings (Mississippi/Ohio valleys)
Explanation: Histoplasma capsulatum is endemic in the Mississippi/Ohio River valleys. Its reservoir is soil enriched with bird and bat droppings. Infection occurs by inhalation of microconidia.
Q58. In pulmonary embolism, infarction occurs in only about 10% of cases because:
Answer: The lung has dual blood supply from pulmonary and bronchial arteries
Explanation: The lung is protected from infarction by its dual blood supply: pulmonary arteries, bronchial arteries, and direct oxygenation from alveolar air. Infarction only occurs when this is compromised.
Q59. Erythema nodosum in sarcoidosis represents:
Answer: Hallmark of acute sarcoidosis — raised tender nodules on anterior legs
Explanation: Erythema nodosum is the hallmark of acute sarcoidosis. It consists of raised, red, tender nodules on the anterior aspects of the legs. Sarcoidal granulomas are actually uncommon in these lesions.
Q60. CMV pneumonia in immunocompromised patients shows which pathognomonic histologic finding?
Answer: Owl-eye intranuclear inclusions in enlarged cells
Explanation: CMV pneumonia shows characteristic "owl-eye" intranuclear inclusions (large, basophilic, surrounded by a clear halo) plus smaller cytoplasmic inclusions in enlarged cells (cytomegaly). Treatment is ganciclovir.