MCQ: Hematopathology – 30 MCQs | Kenya MBChB
30 Year 3: Hematopathology exam questions on MCQ: Hematopathology for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written questions. Sample: What
This MCQ set contains 30 questions on MCQ: Hematopathology in the Year 3: Hematopathology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.
Q1: What percentage of Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas are of B-cell origin?
- A. 70%
- B. 75%
- C. 85%
- D. 90%
Correct answer: C – 85%
NHL is 85% B-cell and 15% T/NK-cell origin. This is a foundational fact frequently tested.
Q2: Which is the most common subtype of B-cell NHL?
- A. Follicular lymphoma
- B. Mantle cell lymphoma
- C. Burkitt lymphoma
- D. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Correct answer: D – Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
DLBCL is the most common NHL subtype overall. Follicular is second at 29%.
Q3: A 60-year-old woman has widespread painless lymphadenopathy. Biopsy shows BCL-2+, CD10+, CD20+ cells. The disease has been present for years with slow progression. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. DLBCL
- B. Mantle cell lymphoma
- C. Follicular lymphoma
- D. Burkitt lymphoma
Correct answer: C – Follicular lymphoma
Indolent course + BCL-2+/CD10+ markers + t(14;18) = classic follicular lymphoma presentation.
Q4: Which translocation is required for the diagnosis of Mantle Cell Lymphoma?
- A. t(14;18)
- B. t(8;14)
- C. t(2;5)
- D. t(11;14)
Correct answer: D – t(11;14)
This juxtaposes the Cyclin D1 gene to the Ig heavy-chain gene → Cyclin D1 overexpression. Its presence is required for MCL diagnosis.
Q5: A patient with NHL has CD5+, CD19+, CD22+, CD23− immunophenotype. Which lymphoma does this suggest?
- A. CLL/SLL
- B. Mantle cell lymphoma
- C. Follicular lymphoma
- D. MALT lymphoma
Correct answer: B – Mantle cell lymphoma
Both MCL and CLL are CD5+/CD19+, but MCL is CD23− while CLL is CD23+. CD22+ also favours MCL.
Q6: Which organism is directly implicated in the pathogenesis of gastric MALT lymphoma?
- A. Epstein-Barr virus
- B. HTLV-1
- C. Helicobacter pylori
- D. HHV-8
Correct answer: C – Helicobacter pylori
Gastric MALT lymphoma is strongly linked to H. pylori. Early-stage disease can regress completely with antibiotics alone.
Q7: What is the first-line treatment for early-stage gastric MALT lymphoma?
- A. R-CHOP chemotherapy
- B. Radiotherapy
- C. H. pylori eradication with antibiotics
- D. Rituximab monotherapy
Correct answer: C – H. pylori eradication with antibiotics
In early-stage gastric MALT, eliminating H. pylori can be curative. Chemotherapy is reserved for advanced or refractory disease.
Q8: A 55-year-old man presents with visual disturbances, fatigue and epistaxis. Serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal IgM spike. Bone marrow biopsy reveals lymphoplasmacytoid infiltration. What gene mutation is present in 90% of cases?
- A. BRAF
- B. TP53
- C. MYD88
- D. MYC
Correct answer: C – MYD88
This is Waldenström's macroglobulinaemia (LPL). MYD88 mutation is present in 90% and is near-diagnostic.
Q9: Why is plasmapheresis particularly effective in treating hyperviscosity in Waldenström's macroglobulinaemia compared to IgG myeloma?
- A. IgM is smaller and easier to filter
- B. IgM is mainly intravascular, making it accessible to plasmapheresis
- C. IgG has higher viscosity than IgM
- D. IgM activates complement more efficiently
Correct answer: B – IgM is mainly intravascular, making it accessible to plasmapheresis
Because IgM stays in the bloodstream (unlike IgG which redistributes extravascularly), plasmapheresis efficiently removes it and rapidly relieves hyperviscosity.
Q10: A child from sub-Saharan Africa presents with a rapidly growing jaw mass. EBV is detected. Histology shows a 'starry sky' pattern with 95% proliferative index. What is the diagnosis?
- A. DLBCL
- B. Lymphoblastic lymphoma
- C. Endemic Burkitt lymphoma
- D. Mantle cell lymphoma
Correct answer: C – Endemic Burkitt lymphoma
Jaw mass + EBV + malaria-endemic region + starry sky histology + 95% mitotic index = classic endemic Burkitt. Translocation is t(8;14) → MYC overexpression.
Q11: Which oncogene is overexpressed in virtually all cases of Burkitt lymphoma?
- A. BCL-2
- B. ALK
- C. MYC
- D. Cyclin D1
Correct answer: C – MYC
t(8;14) translocates MYC to the Ig heavy-chain locus → constitutive MYC expression during phases it should be OFF → uncontrolled proliferation.
Q12: What is the gold standard investigation for diagnosing NHL?
- A. Fine needle aspiration
- B. PET/CT scan
- C. Trucut / whole lymph node biopsy
- D. Bone marrow trephine alone
Correct answer: C – Trucut / whole lymph node biopsy
FNA is specifically insufficient for NHL diagnosis. A biopsy providing tissue architecture is essential for accurate histological subtyping.
Q13: A 45-year-old HIV-positive patient develops a brain mass. MRI shows a ring-enhancing lesion. Biopsy confirms large B-cells with prominent nucleoli. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Toxoplasma encephalitis
- B. Primary CNS lymphoma
- C. Burkitt lymphoma
- D. Glioblastoma multiforme
Correct answer: B – Primary CNS lymphoma
Primary CNS lymphoma is more common in elderly and HIV+ patients. It is usually DLBCL type. Treat with high-dose methotrexate + cytosine arabinoside.
Q14: What is the standard first-line treatment for DLBCL?
- A. CODOX-M/IVAC
- B. R-CVP
- C. R-CHOP × 6–8 cycles
- D. Ibrutinib monotherapy
Correct answer: C – R-CHOP × 6–8 cycles
R-CHOP (Rituximab + Cyclophosphamide + Hydroxydaunorubicin + Vincristine + Prednisolone) given every 3 weeks is the backbone of DLBCL treatment.
Q15: Which subtype of DLBCL carries a worse prognosis?
- A. Germinal centre B-cell (GCB) type
- B. Activated B-cell (ABC) type
- C. Both have equal prognosis
- D. Centroblastic type
Correct answer: B – Activated B-cell (ABC) type
ABC type stains MUM1+ and activates the NFκB pathway. It has a worse prognosis compared to GCB type which stains BCL-6+.
Q16: A 35-year-old patient is diagnosed with lymphoma. Biopsy reveals TdT-positive cells. The presentation overlaps significantly with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Burkitt lymphoma
- B. Mantle cell lymphoma
- C. Lymphoblastic lymphoma
- D. Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
Correct answer: C – Lymphoblastic lymphoma
TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase) positivity is the hallmark of lymphoblastic lymphoma — it is negative in ALL other NHL types. Treated with ALL protocols.
Q17: Which virus is associated with Adult T-cell Leukaemia/Lymphoma?
- A. EBV
- B. HIV-1
- C. HTLV-1
- D. HHV-8
Correct answer: C – HTLV-1
Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) is the causative agent of Adult T-cell Leukaemia/Lymphoma. This is a must-know association.
Q18: A 70-year-old woman presents with skin rash, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a polyclonal rise in IgG. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Mycosis fungoides
- B. Sézary syndrome
- C. Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma
- D. Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
Correct answer: C – Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma
Key triad: lymphadenopathy + hepatosplenomegaly + skin rash + polyclonal IgG in an an elderly patient. Treated with chemotherapy or histone deacetylase inhibitors.
Q19: A patient presents with severe pruritus and psoriasis-like skin plaques. Years later they develop lymph node and bone marrow involvement. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Sézary syndrome
- B. Mycosis fungoides
- C. ALCL
- D. Angioimmunoblastic lymphadenopathy
Correct answer: B – Mycosis fungoides
Mycosis fungoides is a chronic cutaneous T-cell lymphoma starting with pruritus and skin plaques, eventually spreading to deeper organs. Treatment is phototherapy.
Q20: What distinguishes Sézary syndrome from Mycosis fungoides on blood film?
- A. Reed-Sternberg cells
- B. Circulating T-lymphoma cells with cerebriform nuclei
- C. Circulating plasma cells
- D. Blast cells with Auer rods
Correct answer: B – Circulating T-lymphoma cells with cerebriform nuclei
Sézary syndrome = Sézary cells (CD4+ T-cells with cerebriform nuclei) in the blood + erythroderma + lymphadenopathy. This is pathognomonic.
Q21: Which lymphoma is most strongly associated with coeliac disease?
- A. MALT lymphoma
- B. Mantle cell lymphoma
- C. Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL)
- D. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Correct answer: C – Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL)
EATL arises as a complication of coeliac disease and carries a very poor prognosis with poor treatment response.
Q22: Which serum marker is the most important prognostic indicator in NHL?
- A. ESR
- B. Serum LDH
- C. Beta-2 microglobulin
- D. Serum uric acid
Correct answer: B – Serum LDH
Elevated LDH reflects rapid tumour proliferation and high disease burden. It is a key component of the IPI and NCCN-IPI prognostic scoring systems.
Q23: A patient with follicular lymphoma is Stage III but completely asymptomatic. What is the recommended management?
- A. Immediate R-CHOP
- B. Autologous stem cell transplant
- C. Watch and wait
- D. Radiotherapy
Correct answer: C – Watch and wait
Stage II–IV asymptomatic follicular lymphoma is managed with watch and wait. Treatment begins only when symptoms or complications develop.
Q24: What is the ONLY curative option for follicular lymphoma?
- A. Rituximab maintenance
- B. Autologous SCT
- C. Allogeneic SCT
- D. R-bendamustine
Correct answer: C – Allogeneic SCT
Chemotherapy can achieve remission but is not curative in follicular lymphoma. Allogeneic SCT offers the only prospect of cure via graft-vs-lymphoma effect.
Q25: Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL) is associated with which translocation and its resulting overexpressed protein?
- A. t(14;18) → BCL-2
- B. t(11;14) → Cyclin D1
- C. t(2;5) → ALK
- D. t(8;14) → MYC
Correct answer: C – t(2;5) → ALK
t(2;5) causes overexpression of anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK). ALK+ ALCL has better prognosis than ALK− ALCL. Crizotinib specifically inhibits ALK.
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