Basic Pharmacology - Study Guide – 56 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

56 Year 3: Basic Pharmacology II exam questions on Basic Pharmacology - Study Guide for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written quest

This MCQ set contains 56 questions on Basic Pharmacology - Study Guide in the Year 3: Basic Pharmacology II unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: Question 1 Pharmacodynamics includes the study of

  1. A. Mechanisms of drug action
  2. B. Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
  3. C. Distribution of drugs in the organism
  4. D. Excretion of drugs in the organism
  5. E. All of the above

Correct answer: A – Mechanisms of drug action

Pharmacodynamics specifically studies the mechanisms of drug action and the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs on the body. Options B, C, and D describe pharmacokinetic processes (what the body does to the drug), while pharmacodynamics describes what the drug does to the body. ---

Q2: Question 2 Which of the following physiological changes in the elderly may lead to the need to reduce the dose of a prescribed medication?

  1. A. Increased rate of drug absorption
  2. B. Increased rate of hepatic drug biotransformation
  3. C. Decreased efficiency in drug biotransformation
  4. D. Decreased total body fluid as a proportion of body mass
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: C – Decreased efficiency in drug biotransformation

Elderly patients experience decreased hepatic enzyme activity and reduced liver blood flow, leading to decreased drug biotransformation. This results in prolonged drug half-life and increased drug accumulation, necessitating dose reduction to prevent toxicity. ---

Q3: What does the term "affinity" mean?

  1. A. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
  2. B. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
  3. C. A measure of the inhibitory potency of a drug
  4. D. A measure of the bioavailability of a drug

Correct answer: B – A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor

Affinity refers to the strength of the interaction between a drug and its receptor. High affinity means the drug binds strongly to the receptor, requiring lower concentrations to achieve binding. This is distinct from efficacy, which describes the ability to produce an effect once bound. ---

Q4: Question 4 A pharmacological antagonist is a drug that

  1. A. Binds to the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing a suboptimal effect
  2. B. Binds to the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing an optimal effect
  3. C. Interacts with plasma proteins but does not produce any effect
  4. D. Binds to the receptors without directly altering their function

Correct answer: D – Binds to the receptors without directly altering their function

An antagonist binds to a receptor but does not activate it. Instead, it blocks the receptor site, preventing endogenous ligands or agonists from binding and producing their effects. Antagonists have affinity but no intrinsic activity (efficacy). ---

Q5: Irreversible inhibition is due to

  1. A. Ionic bond
  2. B. Covalent bond
  3. C. Hydrogen bond
  4. D. All of the above
  5. E. The effect only diminishes when new enzymes or receptors are synthesize

Correct answer: B – Covalent bond

Irreversible inhibition occurs through covalent bond formation between the drug and its target. Covalent bonds are very strong and permanent, making the inhibition essentially irreversible. The effect only diminishes when new enzymes or receptors are synthesized. ---

Q6: Which of the following parameters is used to indicate the ability of a drug to produce the desired effect?

  1. A. Potency
  2. B. Intrinsic activity
  3. C. Therapeutic index
  4. D. Efficacy
  5. E. It indicates the drug's ability to produce the desired therapeutic effect. Potency refers to the dose required to produce a given effect, while effica

Correct answer: D – Efficacy

Efficacy refers to the maximum response a drug can produce, regardless of dose. It indicates the drug's ability to produce the desired therapeutic effect. Potency refers to the dose required to produce a given effect, while efficacy describes the magnitude of that effect. ---

Q7: Question 7 Drug receptors are found on

  1. A. Plasma membranes only
  2. B. Plasma membranes and plasma proteins
  3. C. Plasma proteins only
  4. D. Plasma membranes and intracellular structures

Correct answer: D – Plasma membranes and intracellular structures

Drug receptors are located on plasma membranes (G-protein coupled receptors, ion channels, enzyme-linked receptors) and intracellularly (nuclear receptors for steroid hormones, thyroid hormones). This allows drugs to interact with various cellular components to produce therapeutic effects. --- AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

Q8: Nicotinic receptor sites do not include which of the following?

  1. A. Bronchial smooth muscle
  2. B. Adrenal medullary cells
  3. C. Parasympathetic ganglia
  4. D. Skeletal muscle end plates
  5. E. Sympathetic ganglia

Correct answer: A – Bronchial smooth muscle

Bronchial smooth muscle contains muscarinic receptors (M3), not nicotinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are found at neuromuscular junctions (skeletal muscle), autonomic ganglia (both sympathetic and parasympathetic), and adrenal medulla. ---

Q9: Which of the following is the neurotransmitter agent normally released in the sinoatrial node (SAN) of the heart in response to an increase in blood pressure?

  1. A. Acetylcholine
  2. B. Dopamine
  3. C. Epinephrine
  4. D. Glutamine
  5. E. Norepinephrine

Correct answer: A – Acetylcholine

When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors activate parasympathetic (vagal) output to the heart. The vagus nerve releases acetylcholine at the SA node, which binds to M2 muscarinic receptors, causing bradycardia and reduced cardiac output to lower blood pressure. ---

Q10: Question 10 Which of the following drugs facilitates catecholamine transmitter release from adrenergic nerve endings?

  1. A. Dopamine
  2. B. Epinephrine
  3. C. Amphetamine
  4. D. Norepinephrine
  5. E. Reserpine

Correct answer: C – Amphetamine

Amphetamine is an indirect sympathomimetic that enters adrenergic nerve terminals and displaces stored norepinephrine, causing its release into the synaptic cleft. This mechanism is responsible for amphetamine's stimulant effects. Reserpine, in contrast, depletes catecholamine stores. ---

Q11: Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in the fight-or-flight reaction, may occur during maximal exercise. Which of the following effects is most likely to occur?

  1. A. Bronchoconstriction
  2. B. Increased intestinal motility
  3. C. Decreased renal blood flow
  4. D. Miosis
  5. E. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C – Decreased renal blood flow

During sympathetic activation, blood is redirected from non-essential organs (including kidneys and GI tract) to skeletal muscles, heart, and brain. This causes decreased renal blood flow. Other sympathetic effects include bronchodilation, decreased GI motility, mydriasis (pupil dilation), and tachycardia. ---

Q12: Mr. Otieno has been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. You are considering treatment with pyridostigmine and neostigmine. Which adverse effect is associated with these two drugs?

  1. A. Bronchoconstriction
  2. B. Irreversible action
  3. C. Constipation
  4. D. Diarrhea
  5. E. Reduced gastric secretions

Correct answer: D – Diarrhea

Pyridostigmine and neostigmine are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that increase acetylcholine levels at all cholinergic sites, including the GI tract. This leads to increased GI motility and secretions, causing diarrhea. Other cholinergic effects include bronchoconstriction, increased secretions, and bradycardia. ---

Q13: Probable signs of atropine overdose in toddlers include which one of the following?

  1. A. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle cramping
  2. B. Tachycardia
  3. C. Increased gastric secretion
  4. D. Pupillary constriction

Correct answer: B – Tachycardia

Atropine is an antimuscarinic that blocks parasympathetic effects. Overdose presents with "hot as a hare, blind as a bat, dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter." Tachycardia results from blockade of vagal (M2) receptors in the heart. Other signs include mydriasis, decreased secretions, and hyperthermia. ---

Q14: Which of the following is the most dangerous effect of belladonna alkaloids in infants and toddlers?

  1. A. Dehydration
  2. B. Hallucinations
  3. C. Hyperthermia
  4. D. Hypertension
  5. E. Intraventricular heart block

Correct answer: C – Hyperthermia

Hyperthermia is the most life-threatening effect in children because belladonna alkaloids (atropine) block sweat glands, preventing heat dissipation. Children have less efficient thermoregulation and higher metabolic rates, making them particularly vulnerable to dangerous temperature elevations. ---

Q15: Which is the treatment of choice in a child with signs of anaphylaxis after being stung by three bees?

  1. A. Diphenhydramine
  2. B. Ephedrine
  3. C. Epinephrine
  4. D. Dexamethasone
  5. E. Isoproterenol

Correct answer: C – Epinephrine

Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It acts on α1 receptors (vasoconstriction to reverse hypotension), β1 receptors (increased cardiac output), and β2 receptors (bronchodilation). It also stabilizes mast cells, preventing further mediator release. Route: IM into anterolateral thigh. ---

Q16: Epinephrine causes a decrease in

  1. A. Cyclic AMP in heart muscle
  2. B. Free fatty acids in blood
  3. C. Glucose in blood
  4. D. Lactate in blood
  5. E. Triglycerides in fat cells

Correct answer: E – Triglycerides in fat cells

Epinephrine stimulates β3 receptors in adipose tissue, activating hormone-sensitive lipase, which breaks down triglycerides into free fatty acids and glycerol. This lipolysis provides energy substrates during the fight-or-flight response. Epinephrine increases cAMP, glucose, lactate, and free fatty acids. ---

Q17: Question 17 Mr. Kamau, 54, had a cardiac transplant 6 months ago. His current blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg and heart rate is 100 bpm. Which of the following drugs would have the least effect on Mr. Kamau's heart rate?

  1. A. Albuterol
  2. B. Epinephrine
  3. C. Phenylephrine
  4. D. Isoproterenol

Correct answer: C – Phenylephrine

A transplanted heart is denervated (no sympathetic or parasympathetic innervation). It responds only to circulating catecholamines via direct receptor stimulation. Phenylephrine is a selective α1 agonist with no direct cardiac effects. Any heart rate changes would be indirect (reflex bradycardia from vasoconstriction), but reflexes are absent in denervated hearts. --- AUTACOIDS

Q18: Question 18 In the synthesis of histamine, conversion of histidine to histamine is catalyzed by

  1. A. N-methyl transferase
  2. B. Aspartyl protease
  3. C. L-histidine decarboxylase
  4. D. Monoamine oxidase

Correct answer: C – L-histidine decarboxylase

L-histidine decarboxylase is the enzyme responsible for converting L-histidine to histamine by removing the carboxyl group. This occurs primarily in mast cells, basophils, and gastric enterochromaffin-like cells. Histamine is then stored in granules until released by various stimuli. ---

Q19: Which receptor type is associated with first-generation H₁ receptor antagonists mediating urinary retention?

  1. A. Adrenergic
  2. B. Cholinergic
  3. C. Serotonergic
  4. D. Dopaminergic
  5. E. properties in addition to H₁ blockad

Correct answer: B – Cholinergic

First-generation antihistamines have anticholinergic (antimuscarinic) properties in addition to H₁ blockade. Blockade of muscarinic receptors in the bladder detrusor muscle and internal sphincter leads to urinary retention. Other anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. ---

Q20: Question 20 Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the synthesis of acetylcholine?

  1. A. Acetylcholinesterase
  2. B. Choline acetyltransferase
  3. C. Aspartyl protease
  4. D. Tyrosine kinase

Correct answer: B – Choline acetyltransferase

Choline acetyltransferase (ChAT) catalyzes the synthesis of acetylcholine from acetyl-CoA and choline in the presynaptic nerve terminal. The reaction occurs in the cytoplasm, and acetylcholine is then transported into synaptic vesicles by vesicular acetylcholine transporter (VAChT). ---

Q21: Which of the following drugs inhibits the transport of choline into the nerve terminal?

  1. A. Vesamicol
  2. B. Metyrosine
  3. C. Hemicholinium
  4. D. Metanephrine
  5. E. This depletes the substrate needed for acetylcholine synthesis, ultimately leading to neuromuscular blockad

Correct answer: C – Hemicholinium

Hemicholinium blocks the sodium-dependent high-affinity choline transporter at the presynaptic membrane, preventing choline uptake. This depletes the substrate needed for acetylcholine synthesis, ultimately leading to neuromuscular blockade. It's used experimentally but not clinically. ---

Q22: Over-secretion of serotonin in carcinoid tumors results in

  1. A. Constipation
  2. B. Diarrhoea
  3. C. All of the above
  4. D. None of the above
  5. E. Other symptoms include flushing, bronchoconstriction, and right-sided valvular heart diseas

Correct answer: B – Diarrhoea

Carcinoid syndrome, caused by serotonin-secreting tumors, produces excessive 5-HT₃ and 5-HT₄ receptor stimulation in the GI tract. This increases intestinal secretions and motility, leading to chronic diarrhea. Other symptoms include flushing, bronchoconstriction, and right-sided valvular heart disease. ---

Q23: Question 23 An example of a widely distributed indole-ethylamine derived from tryptophan

  1. A. Epinephrine
  2. B. Nicotine
  3. C. Serotonin
  4. D. Leukotriene
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: C – Serotonin

Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) is synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan through hydroxylation and decarboxylation. It's an indole-ethylamine found in enterochromaffin cells (90%), platelets, and CNS neurons. It regulates mood, sleep, appetite, and GI motility. ---

Q24: Question 24 What are the effects of serotonin on the cardiovascular system?

  1. A. Vasodilation in skeletal muscle vasculature
  2. B. Reflex bradycardia
  3. C. Vasoconstriction in pulmonary and renal vasculature
  4. D. All of the above
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: D – All of the above

Serotonin has complex cardiovascular effects: (1) Vasodilation in skeletal muscle via 5-HT₇ receptors and NO release; (2) Reflex bradycardia from baroreceptor activation (Bezold-Jarisch reflex); (3) Vasoconstriction in splanchnic, renal, and pulmonary circulation via 5-HT₂ receptors. ---

Q25: Question 25 Bradykinin causes

  1. A. Contraction of arteriolar smooth muscles
  2. B. Contraction of venular smooth muscles
  3. C. Both of the above
  4. D. None of the above

Correct answer: D – None of the above

Bradykinin causes relaxation (not contraction) of vascular smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. It stimulates endothelial cells to release nitric oxide (NO) and prostacyclin (PGI₂), producing vasodilation. It also causes pain and is involved in inflammatory responses. --- ANTIMICROBIAL AGENTS

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