Parasitology Examination | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 49 MCQs on Parasitology Examination with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

1. Q1. Which of the following is the least site for formation of hydatid cyst?

   • Bones
   • Liver
   • Lungs
   • Brain
   • None of the above
   • Brain

   Answer: Brain

2. Q2. Which of the following meals is BEST advisable to be taken with albendazole?

   • Carbohydrates
   • Proteins
   • Vitamins
   • Fats
   • All of the above
   • Fats

   Answer: Fats

3. Q3. Which of the following is an armed tapeworm?

   • Broad tapeworm
   • Pork tapeworm
   • Beef tapeworm
   • Dwarf tapeworm
   • All of the above
   • Pork tapeworm

   Answer: Pork tapeworm

4. Q4. Which of the following medication is given based on body weight in treatment of broad tapeworm?

   • Niclosamide
   • Praziquantel
   • Metriphonate
   • Albendazole
   • All of the above
   • Praziquantel

   Answer: Praziquantel

5. Q5. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except?

   • *Ascaris lumbricoides* is one of the largest nematode
   • Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of *Ascaris lumbricoides*
   • *Ascaris lumbricoides* can cause pneumonia
   • *Ascaris lumbricoides* is transmitted by ingestion of eggs
   • None of the above
   • Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of *Ascaris lumbricoides *

   Answer: Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of *Ascaris lumbricoides*

6. Q6. The human infective stage of Taenia solium is?

   • Plerocercoid
   • Procercoid
   • Cysticercus bovis
   • Cysticercus cellulosae
   • Cercariae
   • Cysticercus cellulosae

   Answer: Cysticercus cellulosae

7. Q7. In which muscles are hexacanth filtered out in the intermediate hosts?

   • Smooth muscles
   • Striated muscles
   • Cardiac muscles
   • All of the above
   • Striated muscles

   Answer: Striated muscles

8. Q8. Which part of the human body is not inhabited by the larvae in cysticercosis?

   • Brain
   • Liver
   • Lung
   • Kidney
   • None of the above
   • Liver

   Answer: Liver

9. Q9. Which of the following parasites cause sparganosis?

   • *Ancylostoma braziliense*
   • *Taenia saginata*
   • *Strongyloides stercoralis*
   • *Toxocara canis*
   • *Spirometra theileri *
   • *Spirometra theileri *

   Answer: *Spirometra theileri *

10. Q10. Which parasite is best diagnosed using lymphatic fluid?

    • *Ascaris lumbricoides*
    • *Wuchereria bancrofti*
    • *Enterobium vermicularis*
    • *Taenia multiceps*
    • All of the above
    • *Wuchereria bancrofti *

    Answer: *Wuchereria bancrofti*

11. Q11. Which of the following tapeworm infections will require prescription with clonazepam? (Select all)

    • Broad tapeworm
    • Pork tapeworm
    • Beef tapeworm
    • Dwarf tapeworm
    • All of the above
    • Pork tapeworm

    Answer: Pork tapeworm

12. Q12. Which parasite results into micropthalmia condition?

    • *Diphyllobothrium latum*
    • *Toxoplasma gondii*
    • *Strongyloides stercoralis*
    • *Toxocara canis*
    • *Enterobium vermicularis *
    • *Toxocara canis *

    Answer: *Toxocara canis*

13. Q13. Which of the following medication is given after a light breakfast?

    • Niclosamide
    • Praziquantel
    • Metriphonate
    • Albendazole
    • All of the above
    • Praziquantel

    Answer: Praziquantel

14. Q14. Albendazole mode of action include interference with?

    • ATP production
    • Glucose uptake
    • Water absorption
    • Membrane permeability
    • RNA synthesis
    • Glucose uptake

    Answer: Glucose uptake

15. Q15. Which of the following medication is contraindicated in thrombocytopenia taenia infected patients?

    • Niclosamide
    • Praziquantel
    • Metriphonate
    • Albendazole
    • All of the above
    • Praziquantel

    Answer: Praziquantel

16. Q16. Swimmer's itch is produced by?

    • *Necator americanus*
    • *Schistosoma haematobium*
    • *Enterobium vermicularis*
    • *Diphyllobothrium latum*
    • All of the above
    • *Schistosoma haematobium *

    Answer: *Schistosoma haematobium*

17. Q17. Which one is associated with nocturnal pruritis ani?

    • *Necator americanus*
    • *Enterobium vermicularis*
    • *Ascaris lumbricoides*
    • *Diphyllobothrium latum*
    • None of the above
    • *Enterobium vermicularis *

    Answer: *Enterobium vermicularis*

18. Q18. Which of the following is ciliated?

    • Rediae
    • Cercariae
    • Coracidium
    • Filariform
    • Microfilariae
    • Coracidium

    Answer: Coracidium

19. Q19. National Institute of Health (NIH) tape technique is used for diagnosis of?

    • *Ancylostoma braziliense*
    • *Enterobium vermicularis*
    • *Strongyloides stercoralis*
    • *Toxocara canis*
    • *Diphyllobothrium latum *
    • *Enterobium vermicularis *

    Answer: *Enterobium vermicularis*

20. Q20. Which of the following is a false tapeworm?

    • *Ancylostoma braziliense*
    • *Enterobium vermicularis*
    • *Strongyloides stercoralis*
    • *Toxocara canis*
    • *Diphyllobothrium latum *
    • *Diphyllobothrium latum *

    Answer: *Diphyllobothrium latum *

21. Q21. Which parasite can cause erosion of bones?

    • *Ascaris lumbricoides*
    • *Echinococcus granulosus*
    • *Gnathostoma spinigerum*
    • *Taenia multiceps*
    • All of the above
    • All of the above

    Answer: All of the above

22. Q22. Prolonged coughing and chest pains can be associated with?

    • *Echinostoma ilocanum*
    • *Paragonimus westermanii*
    • *Fasciolopsis buski*
    • *Clonorchis sinensis*
    • *Schistosoma haematobium *
    • *Paragonimus westermanii *

    Answer: *Paragonimus westermanii*

23. Q23. Bothriocephalus anaemia is due to

    • *Ancylostoma braziliense*
    • *Taenia saginata*
    • *Strongyloides stercoralis*
    • *Toxocara canis*
    • *Diphyllobothrium latum *
    • *Diphyllobothrium latum *

    Answer: *Diphyllobothrium latum *

24. Q24. Which of the following medication is given based on age in treatment of broad tapeworm?

    • Niclosamide
    • Praziquantel
    • Metriphonate
    • Albendazole
    • All of the above
    • Niclosamide

    Answer: Niclosamide

25. Q25. Squamous carcinoma of the bladder is associated with which stage?

    • Adult
    • Egg
    • Cercarial
    • Metacercaria
    • All of the above
    • Cercarial

    Answer: Cercarial

26. Q26. Which of the following parasites is associated with achlorhydria?

    • *Amoeba* species
    • *Trichomonas* species
    • *Giardia* species
    • *Leishmania* species
    • *Giardia* species

    Answer: *Giardia* species

27. Q27. Metronidazole parasite site of target is?

    • RNA
    • DNA
    • Ribosomes
    • Cytoskeleton
    • DNA

    Answer: DNA

28. Q28. Which of the following parasites is associated with pyosalpingitis?

    • *Amoeba* species
    • *Trichomonas* species
    • *Giardia* species
    • *Leishmania* species
    • *Trichomonas* species

    Answer: *Trichomonas* species

29. Q29. Which of the following biomolecules helps in the survival of both Leishmania and Plasmodium parasites?

    • Lpg
    • Gpi
    • Gp63
    • G6pd
    • All of the above
    • All of the above

    Answer: All of the above

30. Q30. Which of the following medication is administered IV?

    • Artesunate
    • Pentamidine
    • Arthemeter
    • Emetine
    • Paromomycin
    • Artesunate

    Answer: Artesunate

31. Q31. Which of the following medicines is antagonist to folic acid?

    • Sulfadiazine
    • Pentamidine
    • Arthemeter
    • Fansidar
    • Paromomycin
    • Fansidar (*Fansidar is a combination of sulfadoxine and pyrimethamine—both folate antagonists.*)

    Answer: Fansidar

32. Q32. Which drug targets the A site of the ribosomes?

    • Pyrimethamine
    • Pentamidine
    • Benzimidazoles
    • Miltefosine
    • Paromomycin
    • Paromomycin (*Paromomycin binds to the A site of the 30S ribosomal subunit, disrupting protein synthesis.*)

    Answer: Paromomycin

33. Q33. Which drug targets the dihydropteroate synthase?

    • Pyrimethamine
    • Sulfadoxine
    • Benzimidazoles
    • Miltefosine
    • Paromomycin
    • Sulfadoxine (*Sulfadoxine inhibits dihydropteroate synthase in folate synthesis pathway.*)

    Answer: Sulfadoxine

34. Q34. Which drug targets the dihydrofolate reductase?

    • Pyrimethamine
    • Sulfadiazine
    • Benzimidazoles
    • Nifurtimox
    • Sulfadoxine
    • Pyrimethamine (*Pyrimethamine is a selective inhibitor of protozoan dihydrofolate reductase.*)

    Answer: Pyrimethamine

35. Q35. Which drug targets the vicynyl sulfhydryl groups of pyruvate kinase?

    • Pyrimethamine
    • Sulfadiazine
    • Meglumine antimonate
    • Melarsoprol
    • Sulfadoxine
    • Melarsoprol (*Melarsoprol reacts with vicinal thiol groups of enzymes like pyruvate kinase, disrupting parasite metabolism.*)

    Answer: Melarsoprol

36. Q36. Which drug targets the ornithine decarboxylase?

    • Eflornithine
    • Sulfadiazine
    • Eflornithine (*Eflornithine irreversibly inhibits ornithine decarboxylase, crucial in polyamine synthesis in trypanosomes.*)

    Answer: Eflornithine

37. Q37. Mucoid stools are associated with?

    • Schistosoma japonicum
    • Giardia lamblia
    • Schistosoma mansoni
    • Entamoeba histolytica
    • Fasciola hepatica
    • Entamoeba histolytica (*Causes amoebic dysentery with bloody, mucoid stools.*)

    Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

38. Q38. Each of the following statements concerning Malaria is correct except

    • The female anopheles mosquito is the vector
    • The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract
    • Release of merozoites from red blood cells causes fever and chills
    • Early infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
    • None of the above
    • The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract (*Gametocytes form in red blood cells, not the GI tract.*)

    Answer: The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract

39. Q39. Which of the following lesions progress to ulcerate?

    • Nodular lesions
    • Diffuse cutaneous
    • Erythematous patches
    • Depigmented macules
    • All of the above
    • Nodular lesions (*Nodular lesions, such as those in cutaneous leishmaniasis, can ulcerate.*)

    Answer: Nodular lesions

40. Q40. Which of the following causes both visceral and cutaneous leishmaniasis?

    • L. donovani
    • L. infantum
    • L. chagasi
    • L. braziliensis
    • L. aethiopica
    • L. aethiopica (*L. aethiopica is primarily cutaneous but can rarely cause visceral symptoms.*)

    Answer: L. aethiopica

41. Q41. Which one of the following causes espundia?

    • L. tropica
    • L. infantum
    • L. chagasi
    • L. braziliensis
    • L. aethiopica
    • L. braziliensis (*L. braziliensis causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as espundia.*)

    Answer: L. braziliensis

42. Q42. Which one of the following causes chiclero's ulcers?

    • L. mexicana
    • L. infantum
    • L. chagasi
    • L. braziliensis
    • L. major
    • L. mexicana (*Chiclero’s ulcer is caused by L. mexicana, typically affecting the ear.*)

    Answer: L. mexicana

43. Q43. Which of the following lesions do not respond to chemotherapy?

    • Oriental sores
    • Delhi boil
    • Zoonotic rural
    • Diffuse cutaneous
    • Leishmaniasis recidivans
    • Leishmaniasis recidivans (*Leishmaniasis recidivans is a chronic form that responds poorly to treatment.*)

    Answer: Leishmaniasis recidivans

44. Q44. How many dose(s) is/are recommended for RTS, S/AS01?

    • 4 (*The RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine is given in 4 doses.*)

    Answer: 4 (*The RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine is given in 4 doses.*)

45. Q45. Which of the following asymptomatic infections should not be treated?

    • Amoebiasis
    • Giardiasis
    • Trichomoniasis
    • Trypanosomiasis
    • Trypanosomiasis (*Due to its severity and progression, trypanosomiasis is treated even if asymptomatic.* However, asymptomatic giardiasis may not be treated in endemic areas.) Correct answer (based on standard protocols):
    • Amoebiasis is typically treated Best
    • Giardiasis , in endemic cases(*Please confirm local guidelines for clarity*)

    Answer: Trypanosomiasis

46. Q46. Which of the following medications should NOT be given to 1st trimester of pregnancy?

    • Furazolidone
    • Paromomycin
    • Tinidazole
    • Iodoquinol
    • Tinidazole (*Tinidazole is contraindicated in the first trimester due to potential teratogenic effects.*)

    Answer: Tinidazole

47. Q47. Which of the following exists only as a trophozoite?

    • histolytica
    • T. hominis
    • G. intestinalis
    • None of the above
    • T. hominis (*Trichomonas hominis exists only in the trophozoite form.*)

    Answer: G. intestinalis

48. Q48. Which of the following medication should NOT be given to children <1 month old?

    • Furazolidone
    • Paromomycin
    • Tinidazole
    • Nitazoxanide
    • Nitazoxanide (*Nitazoxanide is not recommended for infants under 1 year, particularly under 1 month.*)

    Answer: Nitazoxanide

49. Q49. Which of the following drugs targets the A site of parasite ribosome?

    • Furazolidone
    • Paromomycin
    • Tinidazole
    • Diloxanide furoate
    • Paromomycin (*It binds to the A site of the 30S ribosomal subunit, disrupting protein synthesis in parasites.*)

    Answer: Paromomycin