Anatomy Comprehensive Review | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 34 MCQs on Anatomy Comprehensive Review with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. What cranial nerve supplies taste innervation for the posterior tongue?

    Answer: VII

    Explanation: The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) provides taste innervation to the posterior third of the tongue. CN VII (facial) supplies taste to the anterior two-thirds, while CN V provides general sensation but not taste. ---

  2. Q2. Which structure is not found in the carotid sheath?

    Answer: Superior lymphatic duct

    Explanation: The carotid sheath contains the common carotid artery, internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. The superior lymphatic duct is not contained within the carotid sheath. ---

  3. Q3. Which supplies motor innervation to the hypopharynx?

    Answer: Vagus nerve

    Explanation: The vagus nerve (CN X) provides motor innervation to the muscles of the hypopharynx through its pharyngeal branch. The glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to this region. ---

  4. Q4. A horizontal section of the parotid gland will show which one of the following structures piercing the gland?

    Answer: Greater auricular nerve

    Explanation: The greater auricular nerve pierces through the parotid gland. The facial nerve also passes through the parotid gland, but it's not listed as an option. The external carotid artery enters the gland but doesn't pierce through it completely. ---

  5. Q5. When a patient was asked to protrude the tongue, it was noticed the tongue protruded markedly to the left. This can be due to injury to which of the following nerves?

    Answer: Left hypoglossal nerve

    Explanation: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) controls tongue movement. When one side is paralyzed, the tongue deviates toward the paralyzed side due to the unopposed action of the contralateral genioglossus muscle. ---

  6. Q6. Which of the following muscles is not located within or involved in the formation of the boundaries of the posterior neck triangle?

    Answer: Subclavius muscle

    Explanation: The posterior triangle is bounded by the sternocleidomastoid anteriorly, trapezius posteriorly, and clavicle inferiorly. The subclavius muscle is located beneath the clavicle and is not part of the posterior triangle boundaries. ---

  7. Q7. A 65-year-old patient presents with an inability to smile on the left side of his face. The patient reports having a penetrating injury to the side of his mouth that healed. The physical exam shows the patient's lips were unable to move upward when smiling. What nerve innervates the affected muscle?

    Answer: Facial nerve

    Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression, including those involved in smiling. Injury to this nerve results in facial paralysis on the affected side. ---

  8. Q8. The occipital and subclavian triangles are separated by:

    Answer: Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle

    Explanation: The posterior triangle of the neck is subdivided into the occipital triangle (above) and subclavian triangle (below) by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle. ---

  9. Q9. Retropharyngeal space exists between?

    Answer: Visceral compartment and vertebral compartment

    Explanation: The retropharyngeal space is a potential space between the buccopharyngeal fascia (covering the visceral compartment) and the prevertebral fascia (covering the vertebral compartment). ---

  10. Q10. Infections in the retropharyngeal space may spread to which of the following?

    Answer: Posterior mediastinum

    Explanation: The retropharyngeal space communicates with the posterior mediastinum, allowing infections to spread from the neck into the chest cavity, which can be life-threatening. --- ## CELL BIOLOGY AND HISTOLOGY

  11. Q11. Which one of the following parts of a cell lacks a bounding membrane?

    Answer: Nucleolus

    Explanation: The nucleolus is a non-membrane-bound organelle within the nucleus. All other options are membrane-bound organelles. ---

  12. Q12. The electron dense layers of cell membranes are biochemically identified as:

    Answer: Phospholipid-protein complex

    Explanation: The electron-dense layers of cell membranes represent the phospholipid-protein complexes that form the basic structure of biological membranes. ---

  13. Q13. Intracellular digestion is a chief function of the:

    Answer: Lysosomes

    Explanation: Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes and are responsible for intracellular digestion, breaking down worn-out organelles and cellular debris. ---

  14. Q14. Which one of the following structures is visible in the light microscope?

    Answer: Plasma membrane

    Explanation: The plasma membrane can be visualized under light microscopy, especially when stained. The other structures are too small to be resolved by light microscopy and require electron microscopy. ---

  15. Q15. Which one of the following junctions is characterized by the fusion of the outer leaflets of the cell membranes of adjacent cells?

    Answer: Tight junctions (zonula occludens)

    Explanation: Tight junctions are characterized by the fusion of the outer leaflets of adjacent cell membranes, creating an impermeable seal between cells. ---

  16. Q16. Cytoplasmic basophilia is characteristic of cells that:

    Answer: Are synthesizing large amounts of protein

    Explanation: Cytoplasmic basophilia is due to abundant ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum, which are characteristic of cells actively synthesizing proteins. --- ## GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM

  17. Q17. The exocrine cells secrete all of the following except:

    Answer: Gastrin

    Explanation: Gastrin is a hormone secreted by endocrine cells (G cells), not exocrine cells. All other options are enzymes secreted by exocrine cells. ---

  18. Q18. Bile is formed by:

    Answer: Hepatic cells (hepatocytes)

    Explanation: Hepatocytes are the main functional cells of the liver and are responsible for bile production. Kupffer cells are liver macrophages. ---

  19. Q19. The esophagus is subdivided into three portions along its course on the basis of a transition in the composition of the:

    Answer: Muscularis externa

    Explanation: The esophagus is divided into upper, middle, and lower thirds based on the transition from skeletal muscle to smooth muscle in the muscularis externa. ---

  20. Q20. Plicae circularis (valves of Kerkring) are present in:

    Answer: All but the stomach

    Explanation: Plicae circularis are circular folds present in the small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, and ileum) but not in the stomach, which has rugae instead. ---

  21. Q21. The arterial supply of the epiploic apron is done by branches of the:

    Answer: Right gastro-omental artery

    Explanation: The greater omentum (epiploic apron) is supplied by the right and left gastro-omental arteries, with the right gastro-omental artery being the main supply. ---

  22. Q22. About the external anal sphincter, we can state the following except:

    Answer: Is a band of smooth muscle

    Explanation: The external anal sphincter is composed of striated (skeletal) muscle under voluntary control, not smooth muscle. The internal anal sphincter is smooth muscle. ---

  23. Q23. Name the features of deep perineal fascia:

    Answer: Is continuous with the Scarpa's fascia

    Explanation: The deep perineal fascia (Colles' fascia) is continuous with Scarpa's fascia of the anterior abdominal wall, allowing potential spread of extravasated urine. ---

  24. Q24. Innervation of the perineum is given by the:

    Answer: The dorsal nerve of the penis supplies the skin of the scrotum

    Explanation: The dorsal nerve of the penis (terminal branch of the pudendal nerve) does supply sensory innervation to the skin of the scrotum, among other structures. --- ## EMBRYOLOGY AND DEVELOPMENT

  25. Q25. Which of the following is NOT a source of mesenchyme for the development of the head region:

    Answer: 1st pharyngeal pouch

    Explanation: The 1st pharyngeal pouch is an endodermal structure that forms the tympanic cavity and auditory tube. It is not a source of mesenchyme. All other options contribute mesenchyme to head development. ---

  26. Q26. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the formation of the skull?

    Answer: The base of the skull arises from 2 sources both of which undergo endochondral ossification

    Explanation: The skull base develops from both neural crest cells and paraxial mesoderm, and both undergo endochondral ossification. The calvarium undergoes intramembranous ossification. ---

  27. Q27. Which of the following is TRUE about the viscerocranium development?

    Answer: The 1st pharyngeal arch gives rise to the mandible

    Explanation: The first pharyngeal arch (mandibular arch) gives rise to the mandible and maxilla. The second arch gives rise to the stapes, while the first arch contributes to the malleus and incus. ---

  28. Q28. Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT?

    Answer: The notochord gives the developing embryo axial orientation and rigidity

    Explanation: The notochord provides axial support and rigidity to the developing embryo and induces neural tube formation. It does not become the neural tube itself. ---

  29. Q29. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the fusion of the edges of the neural groove to form the neural tube?

    Answer: It leaves the cranial end and caudal ends open for a few days

    Explanation: Neural tube closure begins at multiple sites and proceeds bidirectionally, leaving the anterior and posterior neuropores open temporarily. These close by the end of the 4th week. ---

  30. Q30. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

    Answer: Arnold-Chiari malformation – tethered cord syndrome

    Explanation: Arnold-Chiari malformation involves herniation of cerebellar tissue through the foramen magnum, not tethered cord syndrome. Tethered cord syndrome involves abnormal attachment of the spinal cord. --- ## NEUROANATOMY

  31. Q31. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched?

    Answer: Optic canal – Oculomotor nerve

    Explanation: The optic canal transmits the optic nerve (CN II) and ophthalmic artery, not the oculomotor nerve (CN III). The oculomotor nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure. ---

  32. Q32. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the venous sinuses of the brain?

    Answer: They have thick muscular walls

    Explanation: Venous sinuses have thick walls but lack muscle. They are rigid channels formed by the separation of the two layers of dura mater. ---

  33. Q33. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the lobes of the brain?

    Answer: None of the above

    Explanation: Broca's area is involved in motor speech only; Wernicke's area is in the temporal lobe and parietal lobe; the primary motor area is anterior to the central sulcus; the frontal eyefield controls eye movements but doesn't receive visual input directly. ---

  34. Q34. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the diencephalon?

    Answer: The hypothalamus is crucial in regulation of body homeostasis

    Explanation: The hypothalamus is indeed crucial for homeostasis. The pituitary is connected to but not part of the diencephalon; the thalamus is mainly for sensory relay; the third ventricle (not posterior horn) lies between the thalami.

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