Anatomy Comprehensive Review – 34 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

34 Year 1: Anatomy exam questions on Anatomy Comprehensive Review for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written questions. Sample: What

This MCQ set contains 34 questions on Anatomy Comprehensive Review in the Year 1: Anatomy unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: What cranial nerve supplies taste innervation for the posterior tongue?

  1. A. V
  2. B. VII
  3. C. IX
  4. D. XI
  5. E. XII

Correct answer: C – IX

The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) provides taste innervation to the posterior third of the tongue. CN VII (facial) supplies taste to the anterior two-thirds, while CN V provides general sensation but not taste. ---

Q2: Which structure is not found in the carotid sheath?

  1. A. Common carotid artery
  2. B. Internal carotid artery
  3. C. Internal jugular vein
  4. D. Superior lymphatic duct
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: D – Superior lymphatic duct

The carotid sheath contains the common carotid artery, internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. The superior lymphatic duct is not contained within the carotid sheath. ---

Q3: Which supplies motor innervation to the hypopharynx?

  1. A. Sympathetic nerves
  2. B. Vagus nerve
  3. C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
  4. D. Hypoglossal nerve
  5. E. Abducens nerve

Correct answer: B – Vagus nerve

The vagus nerve (CN X) provides motor innervation to the muscles of the hypopharynx through its pharyngeal branch. The glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to this region. ---

Q4: A horizontal section of the parotid gland will show which one of the following structures piercing the gland?

  1. A. Facial artery
  2. B. Internal jugular vein
  3. C. External carotid artery
  4. D. Facial vein
  5. E. Greater auricular nerve

Correct answer: E – Greater auricular nerve

The greater auricular nerve pierces through the parotid gland. The facial nerve also passes through the parotid gland, but it's not listed as an option. The external carotid artery enters the gland but doesn't pierce through it completely. ---

Q5: When a patient was asked to protrude the tongue, it was noticed the tongue protruded markedly to the left. This can be due to injury to which of the following nerves?

  1. A. Left mandibular nerve
  2. B. Left lingual nerve
  3. C. Right hypoglossal nerve
  4. D. Left hypoglossal nerve
  5. E. Left glossopharyngeal nerve

Correct answer: D – Left hypoglossal nerve

The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) controls tongue movement. When one side is paralyzed, the tongue deviates toward the paralyzed side due to the unopposed action of the contralateral genioglossus muscle. ---

Q6: Which of the following muscles is not located within or involved in the formation of the boundaries of the posterior neck triangle?

  1. A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
  2. B. Trapezius muscle
  3. C. Subclavius muscle
  4. D. Anterior scalene muscle
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: C – Subclavius muscle

The posterior triangle is bounded by the sternocleidomastoid anteriorly, trapezius posteriorly, and clavicle inferiorly. The subclavius muscle is located beneath the clavicle and is not part of the posterior triangle boundaries. ---

Q7: A 65-year-old patient presents with an inability to smile on the left side of his face. The patient reports having a penetrating injury to the side of his mouth that healed. The physical exam shows the patient's lips were unable to move upward when smiling. What nerve innervates the affected muscle?

  1. A. Facial nerve
  2. B. Trigeminal V1
  3. C. Trigeminal V2
  4. D. Trigeminal V3
  5. E. Jacobson's nerve

Correct answer: A – Facial nerve

The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression, including those involved in smiling. Injury to this nerve results in facial paralysis on the affected side. ---

Q8: The occipital and subclavian triangles are separated by:

  1. A. Superior belly of omohyoid muscle
  2. B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
  3. C. Posterior belly of digastric muscle
  4. D. Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle
  5. E. Clavicle bone

Correct answer: D – Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle

The posterior triangle of the neck is subdivided into the occipital triangle (above) and subclavian triangle (below) by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle. ---

Q9: Retropharyngeal space exists between?

  1. A. Pretracheal deep fascial layer and carotid sheath
  2. B. Vascular compartment and vertebral compartment
  3. C. Visceral compartment and vertebral compartment
  4. D. Prevertebral deep fascial layer and superficial fascia
  5. E. Visceral compartment and vascular compartment

Correct answer: C – Visceral compartment and vertebral compartment

The retropharyngeal space is a potential space between the buccopharyngeal fascia (covering the visceral compartment) and the prevertebral fascia (covering the vertebral compartment). ---

Q10: Infections in the retropharyngeal space may spread to which of the following?

  1. A. Anterior mediastinum
  2. B. Carotid space
  3. C. Pretracheal space
  4. D. Posterior mediastinum
  5. E. Masticator space

Correct answer: D – Posterior mediastinum

The retropharyngeal space communicates with the posterior mediastinum, allowing infections to spread from the neck into the chest cavity, which can be life-threatening. --- CELL BIOLOGY AND HISTOLOGY

Q11: Which one of the following parts of a cell lacks a bounding membrane?

  1. A. Nucleolus
  2. B. Endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C. Lysosomes
  4. D. Golgi complex
  5. E. Nucleus

Correct answer: A – Nucleolus

The nucleolus is a non-membrane-bound organelle within the nucleus. All other options are membrane-bound organelles. ---

Q12: The electron dense layers of cell membranes are biochemically identified as:

  1. A. Carbohydrate
  2. B. Glycolipid
  3. C. Sialic acid
  4. D. Phospholipid-protein complex
  5. E. Interphase between lipid layers

Correct answer: D – Phospholipid-protein complex

The electron-dense layers of cell membranes represent the phospholipid-protein complexes that form the basic structure of biological membranes. ---

Q13: Intracellular digestion is a chief function of the:

  1. A. Golgi apparatus
  2. B. Endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C. Lysosomes
  4. D. Residual bodies
  5. E. Mitochondria

Correct answer: C – Lysosomes

Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes and are responsible for intracellular digestion, breaking down worn-out organelles and cellular debris. ---

Q14: Which one of the following structures is visible in the light microscope?

  1. A. Mitochondrion
  2. B. Ribosomes
  3. C. Tight junction
  4. D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  5. E. Plasma membrane

Correct answer: E – Plasma membrane

The plasma membrane can be visualized under light microscopy, especially when stained. The other structures are too small to be resolved by light microscopy and require electron microscopy. ---

Q15: Which one of the following junctions is characterized by the fusion of the outer leaflets of the cell membranes of adjacent cells?

  1. A. Zonula adherens
  2. B. Desmosomes
  3. C. Macula adherens
  4. D. Gap junctions
  5. E. Tight junctions (zonula occludens)

Correct answer: E – Tight junctions (zonula occludens)

Tight junctions are characterized by the fusion of the outer leaflets of adjacent cell membranes, creating an impermeable seal between cells. ---

Q16: Cytoplasmic basophilia is characteristic of cells that:

  1. A. Are actively producing steroid hormones
  2. B. Have abundant DNA in the cytoplasm
  3. C. Are in the S stage
  4. D. Are synthesizing large amounts of protein
  5. E. Exhibit a conspicuous Golgi complex

Correct answer: D – Are synthesizing large amounts of protein

Cytoplasmic basophilia is due to abundant ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum, which are characteristic of cells actively synthesizing proteins. --- GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM

Q17: The exocrine cells secrete all of the following except:

  1. A. Amylase
  2. B. Gastrin
  3. C. Prochymotrypsin
  4. D. Lipase
  5. E. Protrypsin

Correct answer: B – Gastrin

Gastrin is a hormone secreted by endocrine cells (G cells), not exocrine cells. All other options are enzymes secreted by exocrine cells. ---

Q18: Bile is formed by:

  1. A. Sinusoidal endothelium
  2. B. Stromal cells
  3. C. Lymphocytes
  4. D. (von) Kupffer cells
  5. E. Hepatic cells (hepatocytes)

Correct answer: E – Hepatic cells (hepatocytes)

Hepatocytes are the main functional cells of the liver and are responsible for bile production. Kupffer cells are liver macrophages. ---

Q19: The esophagus is subdivided into three portions along its course on the basis of a transition in the composition of the:

  1. A. Submucosa
  2. B. Mucosal layer
  3. C. Adventitia
  4. D. Muscularis externa
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: D – Muscularis externa

The esophagus is divided into upper, middle, and lower thirds based on the transition from skeletal muscle to smooth muscle in the muscularis externa. ---

Q20: Plicae circularis (valves of Kerkring) are present in:

  1. A. Stomach
  2. B. Ileum
  3. C. Duodenum
  4. D. Jejunum
  5. E. All but the stomach

Correct answer: E – All but the stomach

Plicae circularis are circular folds present in the small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, and ileum) but not in the stomach, which has rugae instead. ---

Q21: The arterial supply of the epiploic apron is done by branches of the:

  1. A. Right gastro-omental artery
  2. B. Ileal arteries
  3. C. Right colic artery
  4. D. Sigmoidian arteries
  5. E. Jejunal arteries

Correct answer: A – Right gastro-omental artery

The greater omentum (epiploic apron) is supplied by the right and left gastro-omental arteries, with the right gastro-omental artery being the main supply. ---

Q22: About the external anal sphincter, we can state the following except:

  1. A. Fibers decussate into the superficial transverse perineal muscles anteriorly
  2. B. Fibers are attached to the anococcygeal raphe posteriorly
  3. C. Is a band of smooth muscle
  4. D. Is a band of striated muscle
  5. E. Surrounds the lowest part of the anal canal

Correct answer: C – Is a band of smooth muscle

The external anal sphincter is composed of striated (skeletal) muscle under voluntary control, not smooth muscle. The internal anal sphincter is smooth muscle. ---

Q23: Name the features of deep perineal fascia:

  1. A. Is continuous with the Scarpa's fascia
  2. B. Is firmly attached to posterior margin of the perineal membrane
  3. C. Fuses with the suspensory ligament of the penis or clitoris anteriorly
  4. D. Overlies the superficial muscles of the perineum
  5. E. Is firmly attached to perineal body

Correct answer: A – Is continuous with the Scarpa's fascia

The deep perineal fascia (Colles' fascia) is continuous with Scarpa's fascia of the anterior abdominal wall, allowing potential spread of extravasated urine. ---

Q24: Innervation of the perineum is given by the:

  1. A. The dorsal nerve of the penis supplies the skin of the scrotum
  2. B. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris supplies the corpus cavernosum
  3. C. The inferior rectal nerve supplies the external anal sphincter
  4. D. The inferior rectal nerve may supply the lower part of the vagina
  5. E. The perineal nerve supplies sensory fibers to the skin of the lower vagina

Correct answer: A – The dorsal nerve of the penis supplies the skin of the scrotum

The dorsal nerve of the penis (terminal branch of the pudendal nerve) does supply sensory innervation to the skin of the scrotum, among other structures. --- EMBRYOLOGY AND DEVELOPMENT

Q25: Which of the following is NOT a source of mesenchyme for the development of the head region:

  1. A. Paraxial mesoderm
  2. B. 1st pharyngeal pouch
  3. C. Lateral plate mesoderm
  4. D. Ectodermal placodes
  5. E. Neural crest cells

Correct answer: B – 1st pharyngeal pouch

The 1st pharyngeal pouch is an endodermal structure that forms the tympanic cavity and auditory tube. It is not a source of mesenchyme. All other options contribute mesenchyme to head development. ---

View on OmpathStudy