General Pathology MCQs: Fixatives, FNA, OmpathStudy

G eneral Pathology (Paper One) 11. The preferred fixative for tissue specimen collected for electron microscopy is a. 10% neutral buffered formalin b. Glutaraldehyde c. Nitric acid d. Methanol e. Ethanol Answer: b Glutaraldehyde preserves ultrastructural detail needed for EM; formalin lacks the resolution/cross-linking speed required. --- Q12. Pap smears are fixed using a. Ethanol b. 10% neutral buffered formalin c. Glutaraldehyde d. Nitric acid e. Air-drying Answer: a Wet fixation in 95% ethanol immediately after smearing preserves nuclear/cytoplasmic detail for cytology. --- Q13. Which is true of fine needle aspiration? a. It is an exfoliative technique b. Ideal for bony tissue c. Ideal for wounds and ulcers d. Ideal for superficial masses e. Expensive and time consuming Answer: d FNA is a minimally invasive, quick, cheap technique best suited to palpable/superficial lumps. --- Q14. The most common side effect of fine needle aspiration is a. Minor pain/discomfort b. Haematoma formation c. Fainting d. Infection e. Psychological trauma Answer: a FNA is very low-risk; mild discomfort at the needle site is by far the commonest complaint. --- Q15. Fluid cytopathology specimens include the following except a. Urine b. Pleural fluid c. Peritoneal fluid d. Cystic masses e. Lump aspirate Answer: e A lump aspirate is a solid-mass FNA sample, not a fluid specimen. --- Q16. Graves disease a. Is the most common cause of hypothyroidism b. Occurs after upper respiratory tract viral infection c. Manifests with characteristic exophthalmos d. Demonstrates decreased uptake of radioactive iodine e. Is demonstrated by raised TSH levels Answer: c Exophthalmos from retro-orbital lymphocytic infiltration/glycosaminoglycan deposition is a hallmark; Graves causes hyperthyroidism with increased iodine uptake and suppressed TSH. --- Q17. Which statement regarding diabetes insipidus is false? a. It is caused by similar mutations as diabetes mellitus b. It can occur after neurosurgical intervention c. It is characterized by inability of kidneys to concentrate urine d. Polyuria is the universal presentation e. It is characterized by urine with low specific gravity Answer: a DI (ADH deficiency/resistance) and DM (insulin/glucose disorder) are pathophysiologically unrelated. --- Q18. Features of diabetic nephropathy include the following except? a. Nodular glomerulosclerosis b. Diffuse mesangial sclerosis c. Necrotizing papillitis d. Necrotizing fasciitis e. Capillary basement thickening Answer: d Necrotizing fasciitis is a soft-tissue infection, unrelated to renal pathology. --- Q19. Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include a. Systolic BP 80–100mmHg b. Lower than normal diastolic BP c. Tetany d. Hyperkalemia e. Hypertension with refractory response to spironolactone Answer: e Primary hyperaldosteronism causes hypertension and hypokalemia (not hyperkalemia/hypotension); its diagnostic hallmark is BP responsiveness to the aldosterone antagonist spironolactone. --- Q20. Distinguishing histological feature of pituitary adenoma from normal tissue is a. Local invasion b. Cellular monomorphism and lack of a reticulin network c. Marked cellular pleomorphism d. Marked cellular polymorphism e. Hypocellularity Answer: b Loss of the normal acinar reticulin framework with a monomorphic cell population is the key diagnostic clue on histology. --- Q21. Responsible for alveolar damage in ARDS except one. Which one? a. Leukotrienes b. Oxidants c. Proteases d. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) e. Interleukin-10 (IL-10) Answer: e IL-10 is anti-inflammatory; the others are damaging mediators released by activated neutrophils/macrophages. --- Q22. Which is NOT a diffuse obstructive pulmonary disease? a. Paraseptal emphysema b. Chronic bronchitis c. Relaxation atelectasis d. Occupational asthma e. Bronchiectasis due to cystic fibrosis Answer: c Atelectasis is lung collapse from external compression/pneumothorax, not an obstructive airway disease. --- Q23. NOT a typical finding in COPD? a. Normal or slightly decreased FVC b. Decreased expiratory flow rate c. Decreased FEV1 d. Increased FEV/FVC ratio e. Increase in airflow resistance Answer: d COPD's hallmark is a DECREASED FEV1/FVC ratio (airflow obstruction), not increased. --- Q24. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma a. Has a weak epidemiologic link to Epstein-Barr virus b. Tends to be radiosensitive c. Metastasizes to the lungs at stage 2 d. Tends to be accompanied by atypical lymphocytosis e. Has one histologic variant only Answer: b NPC (especially the non-keratinizing/undifferentiated type) is notably radiosensitive; it has a strong (not weak) EBV link and multiple histologic subtypes. --- Q25. Tumour suppressor gene abnormality most common in both Small Cell and Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma? a. 3p deletions b. Rb mutations c. p16/CDKN2A mutations d. P53 mutations e. KRAS mutations Answer: d TP53 mutation is the single most common genetic alteration shared across both major lung cancer types. --- Q26. Gastr