COMPLEX MULTIGENIC AND CYTOGENETIC DISORDERS - 50 MCQs – 49 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

49 Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics exam questions on COMPLEX MULTIGENIC AND CYTOGENETIC DISORDERS - 50 MCQs for medical students. Includes MCQs, ans

This MCQ set contains 49 questions on COMPLEX MULTIGENIC AND CYTOGENETIC DISORDERS - 50 MCQs in the Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: Question 1 What is the minimum population frequency required for a genetic variant to be classified as a polymorphism?

  1. A. 0.1%
  2. B. 1%
  3. C. 5%
  4. D. 10%

Correct answer: B – 1%

A polymorphism is defined as a genetic variant that has at least two alleles and occurs in at least 1% of the population.

Q2: Question 2 In complex multigenic disorders, what percentage of type 1 diabetes risk is contributed by a few HLA alleles?

  1. A. 25%
  2. B. 40%
  3. C. More than 50%
  4. D. 75%

Correct answer: C – More than 50%

Of the 20 to 30 genes implicated in type 1 diabetes, a few HLA alleles contribute more than 50% of the risk, demonstrating that different polymorphisms vary significantly in their contribution.

Q3: Question 3 Which environmental factor is most commonly associated with unmasking the genetic trait in type 2 diabetes mellitus?

  1. A. Smoking
  2. B. Obesity
  3. C. Alcohol consumption
  4. D. Stress

Correct answer: B – Obesity

Type 2 diabetes often first manifests clinically after weight gain, demonstrating how obesity as an environmental factor unmasks the diabetic genetic trait.

Q4: Question 4 What proportion of newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality?

  1. A. 1 in 50
  2. B. 1 in 100
  3. C. 1 in 200
  4. D. 1 in 500

Correct answer: C – 1 in 200

It is estimated that approximately 1 in 200 newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality.

Q5: Question 5 What percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities?

  1. A. 25%
  2. B. 35%
  3. C. 50%
  4. D. 75%

Correct answer: C – 50%

Approximately 50% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

Q6: Question 6 Which staining technique is widely used to produce distinctive banding patterns on chromosomes?

  1. A. Wright stain
  2. B. Giemsa stain (G banding)
  3. C. Hematoxylin stain
  4. D. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
  5. E.

Correct answer: B – Giemsa stain (G banding)

The Giemsa stain (G banding) technique is widely used and produces a distinctive pattern of alternating light and dark bands that allows identification of each chromosome.

Q7: Question 7 A chromosome number of 3n is classified as

  1. A. Aneuploid
  2. B. Polyploid
  3. C. Haploid
  4. D. Monosomic
  5. E.

Correct answer: B – Polyploid

Any exact multiple of the haploid number (n) is called euploid, and numbers such as 3n and 4n are specifically called polyploid.

Q8: Question 8 What is the primary cause of aneuploidy?

  1. A. Chromosomal translocation
  2. B. Gene mutation
  3. C. Nondisjunction during meiosis
  4. D. Environmental teratogens

Correct answer: C – Nondisjunction during meiosis

The chief cause of aneuploidy is nondisjunction of a homologous pair of chromosomes at the first meiotic division or failure of sister chromatids to separate during the second meiotic division.

Q9: Question 9 What is the chromosome count in a trisomic zygote?

  1. A. 2n – 1
  2. B. 2n
  3. C. 2n + 1
  4. D. 3n

Correct answer: C – 2n + 1

When a gamete with an extra chromosome (n + 1) is fertilized by a normal gamete (n), the resulting zygote is trisomic with chromosome count of 2n + 1.

Q10: Question 10 Which type of chromosomal abnormality is better tolerated: autosomal or sex chromosomal?

  1. A. Autosomal monosomy
  2. B. Autosomal trisomy
  3. C. Sex chromosome imbalances
  4. D. Both are equally tolerated

Correct answer: C – Sex chromosome imbalances

Imbalances of sex chromosomes (excess or loss) are tolerated much better than similar imbalances of autosomes, often producing subtle abnormalities. --- SECTION B: CHROMOSOMAL TERMINOLOGY & NOTATION (Questions 11-16)

Q11: Question 11 What does mosaicism refer to in cytogenetics?

  1. A. Presence of ring chromosomes
  2. B. Presence of two or more cell populations with different chromosome complements
  3. C. Presence of isochromosomes
  4. D. Balanced translocation

Correct answer: B – Presence of two or more cell populations with different chromosome complements

Mosaicism is the presence of two or more populations of cells with different complements of chromosomes in the same individual, commonly affecting sex chromosomes.

Q12: Question 12 In cytogenetic notation, what does "p" represent?

  1. A. Proximal arm
  2. B. Posterior arm
  3. C. Short arm (petit)
  4. D. Primary arm

Correct answer: C – Short arm (petit)

In cytogenetic shorthand, "p" (French, petit) denotes the short arm of a chromosome, while "q" denotes the long arm.

Q13: Question 13 What does the notation 46,XX,t(2;5)(q31;p14) indicate?

  1. A. Deletion of chromosomes 2 and 5
  2. B. Reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 2 and 5
  3. C. Inversion of chromosomes 2 and 5
  4. D. Duplication of chromosomes 2 and 5

Correct answer: B – Reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 2 and 5

This notation indicates a reciprocal translocation involving the long arm of chromosome 2 at region 3, band 1, and the short arm of chromosome 5, region 1, band 4.

Q14: Question 14 What is a Robertsonian translocation?

  1. A. Translocation between two metacentric chromosomes
  2. B. Translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes
  3. C. Translocation involving sex chromosomes
  4. D. Translocation resulting in ring chromosome

Correct answer: B – Translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes

Robertsonian (centric fusion) translocation is a reciprocal translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes involving the short arm of one and long arm of the other.

Q15: Question 15 What is the most common isochromosome found in live births?

  1. A. i(Xp)
  2. B. i(Xq)
  3. C. i(21q)
  4. D. i(18p)

Correct answer: B – i(Xq)

The most common isochromosome present in live births involves the long arm of the X chromosome and is designated i(Xq), resulting in monosomy for Xp genes and trisomy for Xq genes.

Q16: Question 16 How does an isochromosome form?

  1. A. Vertical division of centromere
  2. B. Horizontal division of centromere
  3. C. Deletion of one arm
  4. D. Duplication of entire chromosome

Correct answer: B – Horizontal division of centromere

Isochromosomes result when the centromere divides horizontally rather than vertically, leading to loss of one arm and duplication of the remaining arm. --- SECTION C: DOWN SYNDROME (TRISOMY 21) (Questions 17-27)

Q17: Question 17 What percentage of Down syndrome cases are caused by trisomy 21?

  1. A. 75%
  2. B. 85%
  3. C. 95%
  4. D. 99%

Correct answer: C – 95%

About 95% of affected persons with Down syndrome have trisomy 21, with a chromosome count of 47, most commonly caused by meiotic nondisjunction.

Q18: Question 18 What is the maternal age-related incidence of Down syndrome in women older than 45 years?

  1. A. 1 in 100
  2. B. 1 in 50
  3. C. 1 in 25
  4. D. 1 in 10

Correct answer: C – 1 in 25

Down syndrome occurs in 1 in 1550 live births in women younger than 20 years but increases dramatically to 1 in 25 live births in women older than 45 years.

Q19: Question 19 In what percentage of Down syndrome cases is the extra chromosome of maternal origin?

  1. A. 50%
  2. B. 75%
  3. C. 85%
  4. D. 95%

Correct answer: D – 95%

In 95% of Down syndrome cases, the extra chromosome is of maternal origin, supporting that meiotic nondisjunction occurs primarily in the ovum.

Q20: Question 20 What percentage of Down syndrome cases result from translocation?

  1. A. 1%
  2. B. 4%
  3. C. 10%
  4. D. 15%

Correct answer: B – 4%

In about 4% of all patients with trisomy 21, the extra chromosomal material is present as a translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21 to chromosome 22 or 14.

Q21: Question 21 What percentage of Down syndrome patients are mosaics?

  1. A. 1%
  2. B. 4%
  3. C. 10%
  4. D. 15%

Correct answer: A – 1%

Approximately 1% of patients with trisomy 21 are mosaics, usually having a mixture of 46- and 47-chromosome cells resulting from mitotic nondisjunction during embryogenesis.

Q22: Question 22 What percentage of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease?

  1. A. 20%
  2. B. 30%
  3. C. 40%
  4. D. 60%

Correct answer: C – 40%

Approximately 40% of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease, most commonly endocardial cushion defects including atrial septal defects and ventricular septal defects.

Q23: Question 23 What is the increased risk of acute leukemia in children with Down syndrome?

  1. A. 2- to 5-fold
  2. B. 5- to 10-fold
  3. C. 10- to 20-fold
  4. D. 20- to 30-fold

Correct answer: C – 10- to 20-fold

Children with trisomy 21 have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute leukemia, including both acute lymphoblastic leukemias and acute myeloid leukemias.

Q24: Question 24 At what age do virtually all Down syndrome patients develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease?

  1. A. Over age 30
  2. B. Over age 40
  3. C. Over age 50
  4. D. Over age 60
  5. E.

Correct answer: B – Over age 40

Virtually all patients with trisomy 21 older than age 40 develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease.

Q25: Question 25 What is the current median age at death for persons with Down syndrome?

  1. A. 25 years
  2. B. 35 years
  3. C. 47 years
  4. D. 55 years

Correct answer: C – 47 years

Improved medical care has increased the longevity of persons with trisomy 21, with the current median age at death being 47 years, up from 25 years in 1983.

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