INTRODUCTION TO GENETIC DISORDERS AND MUTATIONS MCQs – 39 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

39 Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics exam questions on INTRODUCTION TO GENETIC DISORDERS AND MUTATIONS MCQs for medical students. Includes MCQs, answe

This MCQ set contains 39 questions on INTRODUCTION TO GENETIC DISORDERS AND MUTATIONS MCQs in the Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: What is the lifetime frequency of genetic disease per 1000 individuals?

  1. A. 250
  2. B. 450
  3. C. 670
  4. D. 850

Correct answer: C – 670

The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is thought to be 670 per 1000 individuals, which is higher than widely appreciated, meaning approximately 67% of people will develop some genetic-related condition.

Q2: Approximately how many genes do human beings have?

  1. A. 10,000
  2. B. 20,000
  3. C. 30,000
  4. D. 50,000

Correct answer: C – 30,000

Human beings have approximately 30,000 genes, though less than 2% of these actually code for proteins, with more than half being repetitive nucleotide sequences.

Q3: What percentage of human DNA codes for proteins?

  1. A. Less than 2%
  2. B. About 10%
  3. C. About 25%
  4. D. More than 50%

Correct answer: A – Less than 2%

Less than 2% of human DNA codes for proteins. More than half of the genome consists of repetitive nucleotide sequences of mysterious function.

Q4: What percentage of DNA sequence do individuals share with each other?

  1. A. 90.0%
  2. B. 95.5%
  3. C. 99.0%
  4. D. 99.9%

Correct answer: D – 99.9%

Individuals share 99.9% of their DNA sequence with each other, with only 0.1% (about 3 million base pairs) accounting for the diversity in the human race.

Q5: Approximately what percentage of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities?

  1. A. 25%
  2. B. 35%
  3. C. 50%
  4. D. 75%

Correct answer: C – 50%

Approximately 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the significant impact of genetic disorders on early development.

Q6: What is a point mutation?

  1. A. Deletion of entire chromosome
  2. B. Substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base
  3. C. Addition of three nucleotides
  4. D. Inversion of chromosome segment

Correct answer: B – Substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base

A point mutation is the substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base, resulting in substitution of an amino acid within a protein, such as in sickle cell anemia.

Q7: What type of mutation is exemplified by sickle cell anemia?

  1. A. Frameshift mutation
  2. B. Point mutation
  3. C. Trinucleotide repeat mutation
  4. D. Chromosomal deletion

Correct answer: B – Point mutation

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation where a single nucleotide substitution leads to the replacement of glutamic acid with valine in the β-globin chain.

Q8: What is a frameshift mutation?

  1. A. Substitution of one base
  2. B. Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs altering the reading frame
  3. C. Amplification of three nucleotides
  4. D. Chromosomal translocation

Correct answer: B – Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs altering the reading frame

A frameshift mutation involves insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs that alters the reading frame of the DNA strand, changing all subsequent amino acids in the protein.

Q9: What type of mutation involves dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides?

  1. A. Point mutation
  2. B. Frameshift mutation
  3. C. Trinucleotide repeat mutation
  4. D. Missense mutation

Correct answer: C – Trinucleotide repeat mutation

Trinucleotide repeat mutations involve dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides (often guanine and cytosine), with the degree of amplification increasing at gametogenesis.

Q10: Which disorder is an example of trinucleotide repeat mutation?

  1. A. Sickle cell anemia
  2. B. Down syndrome
  3. C. Fragile X syndrome
  4. D. Cystic fibrosis

Correct answer: C – Fragile X syndrome

Fragile X syndrome is the classic example of a trinucleotide repeat mutation, involving expansion of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene.

Q11: What are the three major categories of genetic disorders?

  1. A. Infectious, inflammatory, neoplastic
  2. B. Mutant genes, multifactorial inheritance, chromosomal aberrations
  3. C. Congenital, acquired, hereditary
  4. D. Autosomal, X-linked, mitochondrial

Correct answer: B – Mutant genes, multifactorial inheritance, chromosomal aberrations

The three major categories of genetic disorders are: diseases related to mutant genes of large effect, diseases with multifactorial (polygenic) inheritance, and diseases arising from chromosomal aberrations.

Q12: Which type of mutation affects germ cells?

  1. A. Somatic mutations only
  2. B. Mutations transmitted to progeny causing inherited diseases
  3. C. Mutations causing cancer
  4. D. Mutations causing congenital malformations only

Correct answer: B – Mutations transmitted to progeny causing inherited diseases

Mutations affecting germ cells are transmitted to progeny and cause inherited diseases, unlike somatic mutations which are not transmitted to offspring.

Q13: What do somatic cell mutations typically cause?

  1. A. Inherited diseases only
  2. B. Chromosomal aberrations
  3. C. Cancers and some congenital malformations
  4. D. Nothing - they are harmless

Correct answer: C – Cancers and some congenital malformations

Mutations affecting somatic cells are not transmitted to progeny but can cause cancers and some congenital malformations in the affected individual.

Q14: What is functional cloning (classic approach) in molecular genetics?

  1. A. Random gene isolation
  2. B. Starting with known affected protein to isolate and clone normal gene
  3. C. Mapping disease to chromosome location
  4. D. Gene therapy technique

Correct answer: B – Starting with known affected protein to isolate and clone normal gene

Functional cloning starts with a known affected protein (clinical phenotype), then isolates and clones the normal gene, and determines molecular changes affecting the gene.

Q15: What is positional cloning (candidate gene approach)?

  1. A. Starting with known protein
  2. B. Random gene selection
  3. C. Mapping disease phenotype to chromosome location and cloning DNA from region
  4. D. Mitochondrial gene analysis

Correct answer: C – Mapping disease phenotype to chromosome location and cloning DNA from region

Positional cloning involves mapping a disease phenotype to a particular chromosome location, cloning several DNA pieces from the region in vitro, and identifying aberrant proteins from mutated genes.

Q16: Which of the following is produced using recombinant DNA technology by inserting genes into bacteria?

  1. A. Antibiotics only
  2. B. Growth hormone and erythropoietin
  3. C. Vitamins
  4. D. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: B – Growth hormone and erythropoietin

Human biologically active agents like soluble TNF receptor, tissue plasminogen activator, growth hormone, and erythropoietin are produced by inserting requisite genes into bacteria or suitable cells in tissue culture.

Q17: What is gene therapy?

  1. A. Use of antibiotics
  2. B. Treating genetic diseases by transfer of somatic cells transfected with normal genes
  3. C. Surgical correction of defects
  4. D. Chemotherapy for cancer

Correct answer: B – Treating genetic diseases by transfer of somatic cells transfected with normal genes

Gene therapy involves treating genetic diseases by transferring somatic cells that have been transfected with normal genes, though questions remain about whether benefits outweigh risks.

Q18: What is a missense mutation?

  1. A. Silent mutation with no effect
  2. B. Point mutation resulting in amino acid substitution
  3. C. Mutation creating stop codon
  4. D. Deletion of chromosome

Correct answer: B – Point mutation resulting in amino acid substitution

A missense mutation is a type of point mutation where nucleotide substitution results in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein, potentially affecting protein function.

Q19: What is a nonsense mutation?

  1. A. Point mutation with no effect
  2. B. Point mutation creating premature stop codon
  3. C. Frameshift mutation
  4. D. Trinucleotide repeat

Correct answer: B – Point mutation creating premature stop codon

A nonsense mutation is a point mutation that creates a premature stop codon, leading to truncated protein production and usually loss of protein function.

Q20: Which diseases are now considered to have genetic components beyond "classic" genetic disorders?

  1. A. Only single-gene disorders
  2. B. Cardiovascular diseases, immunity disorders, cancers
  3. C. Infectious diseases only
  4. D. Nutritional deficiencies

Correct answer: B – Cardiovascular diseases, immunity disorders, cancers

Beyond classic genetic disorders, cardiovascular diseases, disorders of immunity, and cancers are now recognized to have significant genetic components.

Q21: What characterizes diseases with multifactorial (polygenic) inheritance?

  1. A. Single gene defect
  2. B. Multiple genes plus environmental factors
  3. C. Chromosomal abnormality only
  4. D. Mitochondrial mutation

Correct answer: B – Multiple genes plus environmental factors

Diseases with multifactorial or polygenic inheritance result from the interaction of multiple genes along with environmental factors, rather than a single gene defect.

Q22: What is the key characteristic of trinucleotide repeat mutations?

  1. A. They remain stable
  2. B. They are dynamic with amplification increasing at gametogenesis
  3. C. They only affect somatic cells
  4. D. They cannot be inherited

Correct answer: B – They are dynamic with amplification increasing at gametogenesis

Trinucleotide repeat mutations are dynamic, meaning the degree of amplification increases during gametogenesis, which can lead to anticipation (worsening severity in successive generations).

Q23: What is genomic imprinting?

  1. A. Random gene expression
  2. B. Epigenetic influences where gene expression depends on parent of origin
  3. C. Gene deletion
  4. D. Chromosomal translocation

Correct answer: B – Epigenetic influences where gene expression depends on parent of origin

Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon where the expression of certain genes depends on whether they were inherited from the mother or father, affecting disease transmission.

Q24: Which category of genetic disorders involves mitochondrial DNA mutations?

  1. A. Major category
  2. B. Other category beyond three major types
  3. C. Not a recognized category
  4. D. Same as chromosomal aberrations

Correct answer: B – Other category beyond three major types

Diseases resulting from mutations in mitochondrial DNA constitute a separate category beyond the three major categories, with unique maternal inheritance patterns.

Q25: How can molecular probes be used in disease diagnosis?

  1. A. Only for genetic diseases
  2. B. For both genetic and nongenetic (e.g., infectious) diseases
  3. C. Only for chromosomal disorders
  4. D. Only for cancer

Correct answer: B – For both genetic and nongenetic (e.g., infectious) diseases

Molecular probes can be used in diagnosis of both genetic diseases and nongenetic diseases such as infectious diseases, making them versatile diagnostic tools.

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