INTRODUCTION TO GENETIC DISORDERS AND MUTATIONS MCQs | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 39 MCQs on INTRODUCTION TO GENETIC DISORDERS AND MUTATIONS MCQs with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concept...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. What is the lifetime frequency of genetic disease per 1000 individuals?

    Answer: 670

    Explanation: The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is thought to be 670 per 1000 individuals, which is higher than widely appreciated, meaning approximately 67% of people will develop some genetic-related condition.

  2. Q2. Approximately how many genes do human beings have?

    Answer: 30,000

    Explanation: Human beings have approximately 30,000 genes, though less than 2% of these actually code for proteins, with more than half being repetitive nucleotide sequences.

  3. Q3. What percentage of human DNA codes for proteins?

    Answer: Less than 2%

    Explanation: Less than 2% of human DNA codes for proteins. More than half of the genome consists of repetitive nucleotide sequences of mysterious function.

  4. Q4. What percentage of DNA sequence do individuals share with each other?

    Answer: 99.9%

    Explanation: Individuals share 99.9% of their DNA sequence with each other, with only 0.1% (about 3 million base pairs) accounting for the diversity in the human race.

  5. Q5. Approximately what percentage of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: 50%

    Explanation: Approximately 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the significant impact of genetic disorders on early development.

  6. Q6. What is a point mutation?

    Answer: Substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base

    Explanation: A point mutation is the substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base, resulting in substitution of an amino acid within a protein, such as in sickle cell anemia.

  7. Q7. What type of mutation is exemplified by sickle cell anemia?

    Answer: Point mutation

    Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation where a single nucleotide substitution leads to the replacement of glutamic acid with valine in the β-globin chain.

  8. Q8. What is a frameshift mutation?

    Answer: Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs altering the reading frame

    Explanation: A frameshift mutation involves insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs that alters the reading frame of the DNA strand, changing all subsequent amino acids in the protein.

  9. Q9. What type of mutation involves dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides?

    Answer: Trinucleotide repeat mutation

    Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat mutations involve dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides (often guanine and cytosine), with the degree of amplification increasing at gametogenesis.

  10. Q10. Which disorder is an example of trinucleotide repeat mutation?

    Answer: Fragile X syndrome

    Explanation: Fragile X syndrome is the classic example of a trinucleotide repeat mutation, involving expansion of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene.

  11. Q11. What are the three major categories of genetic disorders?

    Answer: Mutant genes, multifactorial inheritance, chromosomal aberrations

    Explanation: The three major categories of genetic disorders are: diseases related to mutant genes of large effect, diseases with multifactorial (polygenic) inheritance, and diseases arising from chromosomal aberrations.

  12. Q12. Which type of mutation affects germ cells?

    Answer: Mutations transmitted to progeny causing inherited diseases

    Explanation: Mutations affecting germ cells are transmitted to progeny and cause inherited diseases, unlike somatic mutations which are not transmitted to offspring.

  13. Q13. What do somatic cell mutations typically cause?

    Answer: Cancers and some congenital malformations

    Explanation: Mutations affecting somatic cells are not transmitted to progeny but can cause cancers and some congenital malformations in the affected individual.

  14. Q14. What is functional cloning (classic approach) in molecular genetics?

    Answer: Starting with known affected protein to isolate and clone normal gene

    Explanation: Functional cloning starts with a known affected protein (clinical phenotype), then isolates and clones the normal gene, and determines molecular changes affecting the gene.

  15. Q15. What is positional cloning (candidate gene approach)?

    Answer: Mapping disease phenotype to chromosome location and cloning DNA from region

    Explanation: Positional cloning involves mapping a disease phenotype to a particular chromosome location, cloning several DNA pieces from the region in vitro, and identifying aberrant proteins from mutated genes.

  16. Q16. Which of the following is produced using recombinant DNA technology by inserting genes into bacteria?

    Answer: Growth hormone and erythropoietin

    Explanation: Human biologically active agents like soluble TNF receptor, tissue plasminogen activator, growth hormone, and erythropoietin are produced by inserting requisite genes into bacteria or suitable cells in tissue culture.

  17. Q17. What is gene therapy?

    Answer: Treating genetic diseases by transfer of somatic cells transfected with normal genes

    Explanation: Gene therapy involves treating genetic diseases by transferring somatic cells that have been transfected with normal genes, though questions remain about whether benefits outweigh risks.

  18. Q18. What is a missense mutation?

    Answer: Point mutation resulting in amino acid substitution

    Explanation: A missense mutation is a type of point mutation where nucleotide substitution results in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein, potentially affecting protein function.

  19. Q19. What is a nonsense mutation?

    Answer: Point mutation creating premature stop codon

    Explanation: A nonsense mutation is a point mutation that creates a premature stop codon, leading to truncated protein production and usually loss of protein function.

  20. Q20. Which diseases are now considered to have genetic components beyond "classic" genetic disorders?

    Answer: Cardiovascular diseases, immunity disorders, cancers

    Explanation: Beyond classic genetic disorders, cardiovascular diseases, disorders of immunity, and cancers are now recognized to have significant genetic components.

  21. Q21. What characterizes diseases with multifactorial (polygenic) inheritance?

    Answer: Multiple genes plus environmental factors

    Explanation: Diseases with multifactorial or polygenic inheritance result from the interaction of multiple genes along with environmental factors, rather than a single gene defect.

  22. Q22. What is the key characteristic of trinucleotide repeat mutations?

    Answer: They are dynamic with amplification increasing at gametogenesis

    Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat mutations are dynamic, meaning the degree of amplification increases during gametogenesis, which can lead to anticipation (worsening severity in successive generations).

  23. Q23. What is genomic imprinting?

    Answer: Epigenetic influences where gene expression depends on parent of origin

    Explanation: Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon where the expression of certain genes depends on whether they were inherited from the mother or father, affecting disease transmission.

  24. Q24. Which category of genetic disorders involves mitochondrial DNA mutations?

    Answer: Other category beyond three major types

    Explanation: Diseases resulting from mutations in mitochondrial DNA constitute a separate category beyond the three major categories, with unique maternal inheritance patterns.

  25. Q25. How can molecular probes be used in disease diagnosis?

    Answer: For both genetic and nongenetic (e.g., infectious) diseases

    Explanation: Molecular probes can be used in diagnosis of both genetic diseases and nongenetic diseases such as infectious diseases, making them versatile diagnostic tools.

  26. Q26. What is a permanent change in DNA called?

    Answer: Mutation

    Explanation: Mutations are permanent changes in the DNA sequence that can be transmitted to progeny (if in germ cells) or cause disease in the individual (if in somatic cells).

  27. Q27. What percentage of DNA is responsible for human diversity?

    Answer: 0.1%

    Explanation: Only 0.1% of DNA (approximately 3 million base pairs) accounts for diversity in the human race, while individuals share 99.9% of their DNA sequence.

  28. Q28. Which nucleotides are typically involved in trinucleotide repeat mutations?

    Answer: Guanine and cytosine

    Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat mutations typically involve sequences containing guanine and cytosine nucleotides, such as CGG repeats in Fragile X syndrome.

  29. Q29. What application of genetics involves producing tissue plasminogen activator?

    Answer: Production of human biologically active agents

    Explanation: Tissue plasminogen activator is a human biologically active agent produced using recombinant DNA technology by inserting genes into bacteria or tissue culture cells.

  30. Q30. What is the extremity range of genetic disorders?

    Answer: Varies from mild/hidden to severe/lethal

    Explanation: The extremity of genetic disorders varies widely - some may be mild or remain hidden, while others cause early miscarriage or serious disease in young individuals.

  31. Q31. What is the main difference between functional and positional cloning?

    Answer: Functional starts with protein; positional starts with chromosome location

    Explanation: Functional (classic) cloning starts with a known affected protein and works toward the gene, while positional (candidate gene) cloning starts by mapping disease to a chromosome location and works toward the protein.

  32. Q32. What proportion of human genes consists of repetitive nucleotide sequences?

    Answer: More than 50%

    Explanation: More than half ( 50%) of human genes consist of repetitive nucleotide sequences of mysterious function, with less than 2% actually coding for proteins.

  33. Q33. What raises the question "Do the benefits outweigh the risks?" in medical genetics?

    Answer: Gene therapy

    Explanation: Gene therapy raises important ethical and safety questions about whether the benefits of treating genetic diseases by transferring normal genes outweigh the potential risks.

  34. Q34. What happens in a frameshift mutation involving deletion of two base pairs?

    Answer: Reading frame altered affecting all downstream amino acids

    Explanation: Deletion of two base pairs in a frameshift mutation alters the reading frame, changing the coding of all amino acids downstream from the mutation site, usually severely affecting protein function.

  35. Q35. Which genetic disorder category includes diseases like Down syndrome?

    Answer: Chromosomal aberrations

    Explanation: Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is a disease arising from chromosomal aberrations, specifically having an extra copy of chromosome 21.

  36. Q36. What is the significance of unknown genetic disorders being mild or hidden?

    Answer: True burden of genetic disease may be underestimated

    Explanation: The fact that an unknown number of genetic disorders may be mild or remain hidden suggests that the true burden of genetic disease is likely higher than currently recognized.

  37. Q37. What type of cells must be affected for a mutation to be inherited?

    Answer: Germ cells

    Explanation: Only mutations affecting germ cells (sperm or egg cells) can be transmitted to progeny and cause inherited diseases. Somatic cell mutations affect only the individual.

  38. Q38. Which application of genetics helps in understanding the molecular basis of human disease?

    Answer: Functional and positional cloning approaches

    Explanation: Both functional cloning and positional cloning approaches help understand the molecular basis of human disease by identifying genes and proteins involved in disease processes.

  39. Q39. What is the clinical implication of 50% of early miscarriages having chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: Chromosomal abnormalities are major cause of pregnancy loss

    Explanation: The fact that approximately 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities indicates that chromosomal abnormalities are a major cause of early pregnancy loss and many are incompatible with continued development.

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