TO GENETIC DISORDERS AND MUTATIONS MCQs

39 clinical MCQs in Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics. What is the lifetime frequency of genetic disease per 1000 individuals?. Kenya, Africa and glob...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. What is the lifetime frequency of genetic disease per 1000 individuals?

    Answer: 670

    Explanation: The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is thought to be 670 per 1000 individuals, which is higher than widely appreciated, meaning approximately 67% of people will develop some genetic-related condition. ---

  2. Q2. Approximately how many genes do human beings have?

    Answer: 30,000

    Explanation: Human beings have approximately 30,000 genes, though less than 2% of these actually code for proteins, with more than half being repetitive nucleotide sequences. ---

  3. Q3. What percentage of human DNA codes for proteins?

    Answer: Less than 2%

    Explanation: Less than 2% of human DNA codes for proteins. More than half of the genome consists of repetitive nucleotide sequences of mysterious function. ---

  4. Q4. What percentage of DNA sequence do individuals share with each other?

    Answer: 99.9%

    Explanation: Individuals share 99.9% of their DNA sequence with each other, with only 0.1% (about 3 million base pairs) accounting for the diversity in the human race. ---

  5. Q5. Approximately what percentage of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: 50%

    Explanation: Approximately 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the significant impact of genetic disorders on early development. ---

  6. Q6. What is a point mutation?

    Answer: Substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base

    Explanation: A point mutation is the substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base, resulting in substitution of an amino acid within a protein, such as in sickle cell anemia. ---

  7. Q7. What type of mutation is exemplified by sickle cell anemia?

    Answer: Point mutation

    Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation where a single nucleotide substitution leads to the replacement of glutamic acid with valine in the β-globin chain. ---

  8. Q8. What is a frameshift mutation?

    Answer: Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs altering the reading frame

    Explanation: A frameshift mutation involves insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs that alters the reading frame of the DNA strand, changing all subsequent amino acids in the protein. ---

  9. Q9. What type of mutation involves dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides?

    Answer: Trinucleotide repeat mutation

    Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat mutations involve dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides (often guanine and cytosine), with the degree of amplification increasing at gametogenesis. ---

  10. Q10. Which disorder is an example of trinucleotide repeat mutation?

    Answer: Fragile X syndrome

    Explanation: Fragile X syndrome is the classic example of a trinucleotide repeat mutation, involving expansion of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene. ---

  11. Q11. What are the three major categories of genetic disorders?

    Answer: Mutant genes, multifactorial inheritance, chromosomal aberrations

    Explanation: The three major categories of genetic disorders are: diseases related to mutant genes of large effect, diseases with multifactorial (polygenic) inheritance, and diseases arising from chromosomal aberrations. ---

  12. Q12. Which type of mutation affects germ cells?

    Answer: Mutations causing cancer

    Explanation: Mutations affecting germ cells are transmitted to progeny and cause inherited diseases, unlike somatic mutations which are not transmitted to offspring. ---

  13. Q13. What do somatic cell mutations typically cause?

    Answer: Cancers and some congenital malformations

    Explanation: Mutations affecting somatic cells are not transmitted to progeny but can cause cancers and some congenital malformations in the affected individual. ---

  14. Q14. What is functional cloning (classic approach) in molecular genetics?

    Answer: Starting with known affected protein to isolate and clone normal gene

    Explanation: Functional cloning starts with a known affected protein (clinical phenotype), then isolates and clones the normal gene, and determines molecular changes affecting the gene. ---

  15. Q15. What is positional cloning (candidate gene approach)?

    Answer: Mapping disease phenotype to chromosome location and cloning DNA from region

    Explanation: Positional cloning involves mapping a disease phenotype to a particular chromosome location, cloning several DNA pieces from the region in vitro, and identifying aberrant proteins from mutated genes. ---

  16. Q16. Which of the following is produced using recombinant DNA technology by inserting genes into bacteria?

    Answer: Growth hormone and erythropoietin

    Explanation: Human biologically active agents like soluble TNF receptor, tissue plasminogen activator, growth hormone, and erythropoietin are produced by inserting requisite genes into bacteria or suitable cells in tissue culture. ---

  17. Q17. What is gene therapy?

    Answer: Treating genetic diseases by transfer of somatic cells transfected with normal genes

    Explanation: Gene therapy involves treating genetic diseases by transferring somatic cells that have been transfected with normal genes, though questions remain about whether benefits outweigh risks. ---

  18. Q18. What is a missense mutation?

    Answer: A missense mutation

    Explanation: A missense mutation is a type of point mutation where nucleotide substitution results in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein, potentially affecting protein function. ---

  19. Q19. What is a nonsense mutation?

    Answer: A nonsense mutation

    Explanation: A nonsense mutation is a point mutation that creates a premature stop codon, leading to truncated protein production and usually loss of protein function. ---

  20. Q20. Which diseases are now considered to have genetic components beyond "classic" genetic disorders?

    Answer: Cardiovascular diseases, immunity disorders, cancers

    Explanation: Beyond classic genetic disorders, cardiovascular diseases, disorders of immunity, and cancers are now recognized to have significant genetic components. ---

  21. Q21. What characterizes diseases with multifactorial (polygenic) inheritance?

    Answer: Single gene defect

    Explanation: Diseases with multifactorial or polygenic inheritance result from the interaction of multiple genes along with environmental factors, rather than a single gene defect. ---

  22. Q22. What is the key characteristic of trinucleotide repeat mutations?

    Answer: They only affect somatic cells

    Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat mutations are dynamic, meaning the degree of amplification increases during gametogenesis, which can lead to anticipation (worsening severity in successive generations). ---

  23. Q23. What is genomic imprinting?

    Answer: Genomic imprinting

    Explanation: Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon where the expression of certain genes depends on whether they were inherited from the mother or father, affecting disease transmission. ---

  24. Q24. Which category of genetic disorders involves mitochondrial DNA mutations?

    Answer: Other category beyond three major types

    Explanation: Diseases resulting from mutations in mitochondrial DNA constitute a separate category beyond the three major categories, with unique maternal inheritance patterns. ---

  25. Q25. How can molecular probes be used in disease diagnosis?

    Answer: For both genetic and nongenetic (e.g., infectious) diseases

    Explanation: Molecular probes can be used in diagnosis of both genetic diseases and nongenetic diseases such as infectious diseases, making them versatile diagnostic tools. ---

  26. Q26. What is a permanent change in DNA called?

    Answer: Mutation

    Explanation: Mutations are permanent changes in the DNA sequence that can be transmitted to progeny (if in germ cells) or cause disease in the individual (if in somatic cells). ---

  27. Q27. What percentage of DNA is responsible for human diversity?

    Answer: 0.1%

    Explanation: Only 0.1% of DNA (approximately 3 million base pairs) accounts for diversity in the human race, while individuals share 99.9% of their DNA sequence. ---

  28. Q28. Which nucleotides are typically involved in trinucleotide repeat mutations?

    Answer: Guanine and cytosine

    Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat mutations typically involve sequences containing guanine and cytosine nucleotides, such as CGG repeats in Fragile X syndrome. ---

  29. Q29. What application of genetics involves producing tissue plasminogen activator?

    Answer: Tissue plasminogen activator

    Explanation: Tissue plasminogen activator is a human biologically active agent produced using recombinant DNA technology by inserting genes into bacteria or tissue culture cells. ---

  30. Q30. What is the extremity range of genetic disorders?

    Answer: Varies from mild/hidden to severe/lethal

    Explanation: The extremity of genetic disorders varies widely - some may be mild or remain hidden, while others cause early miscarriage or serious disease in young individuals. ---

  31. Q31. What is the main difference between functional and positional cloning?

    Answer: Functional starts with protein; positional starts with chromosome location

    Explanation: Functional (classic) cloning starts with a known affected protein and works toward the gene, while positional (candidate gene) cloning starts by mapping disease to a chromosome location and works toward the protein. ---

  32. Q32. What proportion of human genes consists of repetitive nucleotide sequences?

    Answer: More than 50%

    Explanation: More than half ( 50%) of human genes consist of repetitive nucleotide sequences of mysterious function, with less than 2% actually coding for proteins. ---

  33. Q33. What raises the question "Do the benefits outweigh the risks?" in medical genetics?

    Answer: Gene therapy

    Explanation: Gene therapy raises important ethical and safety questions about whether the benefits of treating genetic diseases by transferring normal genes outweigh the potential risks. ---

  34. Q34. What happens in a frameshift mutation involving deletion of two base pairs?

    Answer: Reading frame altered affecting all downstream amino acids

    Explanation: Deletion of two base pairs in a frameshift mutation alters the reading frame, changing the coding of all amino acids downstream from the mutation site, usually severely affecting protein function. ---

  35. Q35. Which genetic disorder category includes diseases like Down syndrome?

    Answer: Chromosomal aberrations

    Explanation: Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is a disease arising from chromosomal aberrations, specifically having an extra copy of chromosome 21. ---

  36. Q36. What is the significance of unknown genetic disorders being mild or hidden?

    Answer: True burden of genetic disease may be underestimated

    Explanation: The fact that an unknown number of genetic disorders may be mild or remain hidden suggests that the true burden of genetic disease is likely higher than currently recognized. ---

  37. Q37. What type of cells must be affected for a mutation to be inherited?

    Answer: Germ cells

    Explanation: Only mutations affecting germ cells (sperm or egg cells) can be transmitted to progeny and cause inherited diseases. Somatic cell mutations affect only the individual. ---

  38. Q38. Which application of genetics helps in understanding the molecular basis of human disease?

    Answer: Functional and positional cloning approaches

    Explanation: Both functional cloning and positional cloning approaches help understand the molecular basis of human disease by identifying genes and proteins involved in disease processes. ---

  39. Q39. What is the clinical implication of 50% of early miscarriages having chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: Chromosomal abnormalities are major cause of pregnancy loss

    Explanation: The fact that approximately 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities indicates that chromosomal abnormalities are a major cause of early pregnancy loss and many are incompatible with continued development.

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