Medical Physiology Ii – 97 MCQs | Kenya MBChB
97 Year 2: GIT Physiology exam questions on Medical Physiology Ii for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written questions. Sample: Whic
This MCQ set contains 97 questions on Medical Physiology Ii in the Year 2: GIT Physiology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.
Q1: Which of the following statements is FALSE?
- A. Sodium is actively reabsorbed in the colon
- B. 90% water of colonic content is reabsorbed in the large bowel
- C. Water intoxication may result from a large volume of enema
- D. Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon
- E. Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon (The longest transit time occurs in the transverse and descending colon.)
Correct answer: D – Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon
Q2: Which tissue layer provides for primary digestive motility?
- A. Mucosa
- B. Submucosa
- C. Mesentery
- D. Muscularis mucosa
Correct answer: D – Muscularis mucosa
Q3: Which statement about bile is true?
- A. Contains enzymes required for the digestion of fat
- B. Contains unconjugated bilirubin
- C. Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
- D. Pigments contain iron
Correct answer: C – Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
Q4: Which statement regarding the swallowing reflex is false?
- A. Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord
- B. Includes inhibition of respiration
- C. Is initiated by a voluntary act
- D. Is dependent on intrinsic nerve networks in the esophagus
- E. Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord (Reflex centers are in the medulla and lower pons.)
Correct answer: A – Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord
Q5: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
- A. Intestinal blood vessel is entirely regulated by the enteric nervous system
- B. Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
- C. Peristalsis is a type of spinal response to stretch
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B – Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
Q6: What is false about tonic contractions?
- A. Lasts a few seconds at a time during ingestion of a meal
- B. Secondary to continuous calcium influx
- C. Is caused by repeated spike waves
- D. Hormones may play a role in stimulating tonic contractions
Correct answer: C – Is caused by repeated spike waves
Q7: Which of the following is characteristic of the segmenting movements in the small intestine?
- A. It decreases particle size, which increases the surface area for digestion
- B. It brings the products of digestion to the mucosal surface for absorption
- C. It results in the mixing of the luminal contents in front of the propulsive segments
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D – All of the above
Q8: Secretion of saliva increases in all of the below except
- A. Touch receptors in the mouth are stimulated
- B. The mouth is flushed with acid fluids with a pH of about 4
- C. A subject thinks of unappetizing food
- D. Vomiting is imminent
Correct answer: C – A subject thinks of unappetizing food
Q9: Defecation is a reflex action
- A. That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord
- B. Whose afferent limb carries impulses from stretch receptors in the colon
- C. Whose efferent limb travels mainly in sympathetic autonomic nerves
- D. Which is less likely to be initiated just after a meal than just before it
Correct answer: A – That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord
Q10: In the stomach
- A. pH rarely falls below 4.0
- B. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid
- C. Ferrous iron is reduced to ferric iron by hydrochloric acid
- D. Acid secretion is inhibited by pentagastrin
Correct answer: B – Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid
Q11: Intestinal secretions contain
- A. Potassium in a concentration similar to that in extracellular fluid
- B. Enzymes that are released when the vagus nerve is stimulated
- C. Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides
- D. Enzymes that hydrolyze monosaccharides
Correct answer: C – Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides
Q12: A 55-year-old man with chronic alcohol consumption presents with nonspecific complaints of dyspepsia. Examination reveals destruction of gastric glands. This predisposes him to
- A. Steatorrhea
- B. Gastric hypomotility
- C. Gastric ulcer
- D. Anemia
- E. Anemia (Due to intrinsic factor deficiency and vitamin B12 malabsorption.)
Correct answer: D – Anemia
Q13: A patient with trigeminal neurapraxia would have the greatest difficulty with
- A. Secondary peristalsis in the esophagus
- B. Swallowing
- C. Chewing
- D. Chewing (Trigeminal nerve innervates muscles of mastication.)
Correct answer: C – Chewing
Q14: Which statement is false about the normally innervated stomach?
- A. Secretes gastric juice when food is chewed, even if not swallowed
- B. Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked
- C. Both innervated and denervated stomachs can secrete gastric juice after a meal
- D. Empties more quickly than the denervated stomach
- E. Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked (HCl secretion is blocked by H2 receptor antagonists, not H1.)
Correct answer: B – Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked
Q15: Passage of gastric contents to the duodenum may cause all except
- A. Copious secretion of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate
- B. Decreased gastric motility
- C. Contraction of the gallbladder
- D. Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi
- E. Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi (It relaxes to allow bile and pancreatic secretions to enter the duodenum.)
Correct answer: D – Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi
Q16: Migrating motility complexes (MMCs) occur every 90 minutes between meals. Absence of MMCs increases
- A. Duodenal motility
- B. Gastric emptying
- C. Intestinal bacteria
- D. Mass movements
- E. Intestinal bacteria (MMCs help clear bacterial overgrowth between meals.)
Correct answer: C – Intestinal bacteria
Q17: The cells of the liver
- A. Help maintain normal blood glucose
- B. Deaminate amino acids to form NH4+ excreted as ammonium salts
- C. Synthesize Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol)
- D. Manufacture most immune globulins
Correct answer: A – Help maintain normal blood glucose
Q18: Which statement is incorrect about free fatty acids in plasma?
- A. Account for <10% of total fatty acids
- B. Are complexed with plasma proteins
- C. Decrease when blood adrenaline rises
- D. Can be metabolized for energy in cardiac and skeletal muscle
- E. Decrease when blood adrenaline rises (They actually increase due to lipolysis.)
Correct answer: C – Decrease when blood adrenaline rises
Q19: Trypsin inhibitor
- A. Inhibits pancreatic enzymes
- B. Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas
- C. Deficiency is implicated in pancreatic cancer
- D. Is produced by enterocytes
Correct answer: B – Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas
Q20: Which statement is false about impaired intestinal absorption?
- A. Iron absorption decreases after stomach removal
- B. Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size
- C. Water absorption decreases in infants unable to digest disaccharides
- D. Bile salt malabsorption occurs after terminal ileum removal
- E. Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size (It causes enlargement , i.e., goiter.)
Correct answer: B – Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size
Q21: The most abundant bile acid is
- A. Cholic acid
- B. Chenodeoxycholic acid
- C. Deoxycholic acid
- D. Lithocholic acid
Correct answer: A – Cholic acid
Q22: The total circulating bile salt pool is approximately
- A. 35 mg
- B. 3.5 g
- C. 150 mg
- D. 30 g
Correct answer: B – 3.5 g
Q23: Fat stores in adults
- A. Make up <5% of body weight
- B. Are smaller in women than men
- C. Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity
- D. Release fatty acids when insulin is injected
Correct answer: C – Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity
Q24: The cause of jaundice is likely to be
- A. Liver disease if albumin is low and bilirubin is unconjugated
- B. Bile duct obstruction if urine is paler than normal
- C. Hemolysis if prothrombin level is low
- D. Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal
Correct answer: D – Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal
Q25: Diminished liver function may result in an increase in all except
- A. Albumin-to-globulin ratio
- B. Size of male breasts
- C. Unconjugated bilirubin
- D. Tendency to bleed
- E. Albumin-to-globulin ratio (This ratio decreases in liver disease due to decreased albumin synthesis.)
Correct answer: A – Albumin-to-globulin ratio
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