Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon

Which statement about bile is true?

Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble

Which statement regarding the swallowing reflex is false?

Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation

What is false about tonic contractions?

Is caused by repeated spike waves

Secretion of saliva increases in all of the below except

A subject thinks of unappetizing food

Defecation is a reflex action

That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord

Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid

Intestinal secretions contain

Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides

Which statement is false about the normally innervated stomach?

Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked

Passage of gastric contents to the duodenum may cause all except

Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi

The cells of the liver

Help maintain normal blood glucose

Which statement is incorrect about free fatty acids in plasma?

Decrease when blood adrenaline rises

Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas

Which statement is false about impaired intestinal absorption?

Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size

Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity

The cause of jaundice is likely to be

Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal

Which statement is incorrect about portal hypertension?

Portal blood flow through the liver increases

Which statement is false about obesity?

Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories

Beta cells release equimolar insulin and C-peptide

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is best described as

Autoimmune destruction due to anti-thyroglobulin antibodies

Cushing’s syndrome refers to

Disease from abnormally high cortisol

Which is true about glucose reabsorption?

Glucose enters epithelial cells via apical secondary active transport

Medical Physiology Ii | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 97 MCQs on Medical Physiology Ii with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

Q1. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
- Sodium is actively reabsorbed in the colon
- 90% water of colonic content is reabsorbed in the large bowel
- Water intoxication may result from a large volume of enema
- Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon
- Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon *(The longest transit time occurs in the transverse and descending colon.)*
Answer: Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon
Q2. Which tissue layer provides for primary digestive motility?
- Mucosa
- Submucosa
- Mesentery
- Muscularis mucosa
- Muscularis mucosa
Answer: Muscularis mucosa
Q3. Which statement about bile is true?
- Contains enzymes required for the digestion of fat
- Contains unconjugated bilirubin
- Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
- Pigments contain iron
- Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
Answer: Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
Q4. Which statement regarding the swallowing reflex is false?
- Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord
- Includes inhibition of respiration
- Is initiated by a voluntary act
- Is dependent on intrinsic nerve networks in the esophagus
- Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord *(Reflex centers are in the medulla and lower pons.)*
Answer: Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord
Q5. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
- Intestinal blood vessel is entirely regulated by the enteric nervous system
- Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
- Peristalsis is a type of spinal response to stretch
- All of the above
- Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
Answer: Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
Q6. What is false about tonic contractions?
- Lasts a few seconds at a time during ingestion of a meal
- Secondary to continuous calcium influx
- Is caused by repeated spike waves
- Hormones may play a role in stimulating tonic contractions
- Is caused by repeated spike waves
Answer: Is caused by repeated spike waves
Q7. Which of the following is characteristic of the segmenting movements in the small intestine?
- It decreases particle size, which increases the surface area for digestion
- It brings the products of digestion to the mucosal surface for absorption
- It results in the mixing of the luminal contents in front of the propulsive segments
- All of the above
- All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Q8. Secretion of saliva increases in all of the below except
- Touch receptors in the mouth are stimulated
- The mouth is flushed with acid fluids with a pH of about 4
- A subject thinks of unappetizing food
- Vomiting is imminent
- A subject thinks of unappetizing food
Answer: A subject thinks of unappetizing food
Q9. Defecation is a reflex action
- That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord
- Whose afferent limb carries impulses from stretch receptors in the colon
- Whose efferent limb travels mainly in sympathetic autonomic nerves
- Which is less likely to be initiated just after a meal than just before it
- That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord
Answer: That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord
Q10. In the stomach
- pH rarely falls below 4.0
- Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid
- Ferrous iron is reduced to ferric iron by hydrochloric acid
- Acid secretion is inhibited by pentagastrin
- Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid
Answer: Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid
Q11. Intestinal secretions contain
- Potassium in a concentration similar to that in extracellular fluid
- Enzymes that are released when the vagus nerve is stimulated
- Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides
- Enzymes that hydrolyze monosaccharides
- Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides
Answer: Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides
Q12. A 55-year-old man with chronic alcohol consumption presents with nonspecific complaints of dyspepsia. Examination reveals destruction of gastric glands. This predisposes him to
- Steatorrhea
- Gastric hypomotility
- Gastric ulcer
- Anemia
- Anemia *(Due to intrinsic factor deficiency and vitamin B12 malabsorption.)*
Answer: Anemia
Q13. A patient with trigeminal neurapraxia would have the greatest difficulty with
- Secondary peristalsis in the esophagus
- Swallowing
- Chewing
- Chewing *(Trigeminal nerve innervates muscles of mastication.)*
Answer: Chewing
Q14. Which statement is false about the normally innervated stomach?
- Secretes gastric juice when food is chewed, even if not swallowed
- Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked
- Both innervated and denervated stomachs can secrete gastric juice after a meal
- Empties more quickly than the denervated stomach
- Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked *(HCl secretion is blocked by H2 receptor antagonists, not H1.)*
Answer: Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked
Q15. Passage of gastric contents to the duodenum may cause all except
- Copious secretion of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate
- Decreased gastric motility
- Contraction of the gallbladder
- Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi
- Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi *(It relaxes to allow bile and pancreatic secretions to enter the duodenum.)*
Answer: Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi
Q16. Migrating motility complexes (MMCs) occur every 90 minutes between meals. Absence of MMCs increases
- Duodenal motility
- Gastric emptying
- Intestinal bacteria
- Mass movements
- Intestinal bacteria *(MMCs help clear bacterial overgrowth between meals.)*
Answer: Intestinal bacteria
Q17. The cells of the liver
- Help maintain normal blood glucose
- Deaminate amino acids to form NH4+ excreted as ammonium salts
- Synthesize Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol)
- Manufacture most immune globulins
- Help maintain normal blood glucose
Answer: Help maintain normal blood glucose
Q18. Which statement is incorrect about free fatty acids in plasma?
- Account for <10% of total fatty acids
- Are complexed with plasma proteins
- Decrease when blood adrenaline rises
- Can be metabolized for energy in cardiac and skeletal muscle
- Decrease when blood adrenaline rises *(They actually increase due to lipolysis.)*
Answer: Decrease when blood adrenaline rises
Q19. Trypsin inhibitor
- Inhibits pancreatic enzymes
- Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas
- Deficiency is implicated in pancreatic cancer
- Is produced by enterocytes
- Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas
Answer: Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas
Q20. Which statement is false about impaired intestinal absorption?
- Iron absorption decreases after stomach removal
- Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size
- Water absorption decreases in infants unable to digest disaccharides
- Bile salt malabsorption occurs after terminal ileum removal
- Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size *(It causes enlargement , i.e., goiter.)*
Answer: Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size
Q21. The most abundant bile acid is
- Cholic acid
- Chenodeoxycholic acid
- Deoxycholic acid
- Lithocholic acid
- Cholic acid
Answer: Cholic acid
Q22. The total circulating bile salt pool is approximately
- 35 mg
- 3.5 g
- 150 mg
- 30 g
- 3.5 g
Answer: 3.5 g
Q23. Fat stores in adults
- Make up <5% of body weight
- Are smaller in women than men
- Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity
- Release fatty acids when insulin is injected
- Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity
Answer: Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity
Q24. The cause of jaundice is likely to be
- Liver disease if albumin is low and bilirubin is unconjugated
- Bile duct obstruction if urine is paler than normal
- Hemolysis if prothrombin level is low
- Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal
- Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal
Answer: Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal
Q25. Diminished liver function may result in an increase in all except
- Albumin-to-globulin ratio
- Size of male breasts
- Unconjugated bilirubin
- Tendency to bleed
- Albumin-to-globulin ratio *(This ratio decreases in liver disease due to decreased albumin synthesis.)*
Answer: Albumin-to-globulin ratio
Q26. Which statement is incorrect about portal hypertension?
- Hepatic sinusoidal resistance increases
- Portal blood flow through the liver increases
- Peritoneal fluid volume increases
- Porto-caval shunt decreases bleeding tendency
- Portal blood flow through the liver increases *(It decreases due to increased resistance.)*
Answer: Portal blood flow through the liver increases
Q27. Which statement is false about obesity?
- Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories
- Associated with increased demands on pancreatic beta cells
- Can be assessed by skin fold thickness
- Can be assessed by weighing in air and water
- Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories *(Excess calories, regardless of macronutrient, can lead to obesity.)*
Answer: Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories
Q28. Which hormone is not a glycoprotein?
- TRH
- FSH
- hCG
- TRH
Answer: TRH
Q29. The three glycoprotein hormones (each with alpha and beta subunits) produced by the pituitary are
- FSH, LH, TRH
- TRH, ACTH, LH
- TSH, LH, FSH
- GH, TSH, LH
- TSH, LH, FSH
Answer: TSH, LH, FSH
Q30. Growth hormone secretion is increased by all except
- Pharmacologic hydrocortisone
- Hypoglycemia
- Exercise
- Protein meal
- Pharmacologic hydrocortisone *(It suppresses GH when used pharmacologically.)*
Answer: Pharmacologic hydrocortisone
Q31. Which statement is true regarding oxytocin?
- Essential for milk ejection
- Increases uterine contractility
- Facilitates sperm transport in the uterus
- All of the above
- All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Q32. Which inhibits lactation?
- Prolactin
- Chorionic somatomammotropin
- Bromocriptine
- Growth hormone
- Bromocriptine *(It’s a dopamine agonist that suppresses prolactin.)*
Answer: Bromocriptine
Q33. The major stimulator of parathyroid hormone release is
- Vitamin D
- Fall in plasma ionized calcium
- Calcitonin
- Fall in plasma phosphate
- Fall in plasma ionized calcium
Answer: Fall in plasma ionized calcium
Q34. Which hormone lowers plasma ionized calcium?
- Calcineurin
- Calcitonin
- Parathyroid hormone
- PTH-related peptide
- Calcitonin
Answer: Calcitonin
Q35. For a euthyroid woman (not pregnant/nursing, no meds), the recommended daily iodine intake is
- 75 μg
- 150 μg
- 225 μg
- 300 μg
- 150 μg
Answer: 150 μg
Q36. Iodine is concentrated in thyroid follicular cells by
- Primary active transport
- Secondary active transport
- Simple diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Secondary active transport *(Via Na⁺/I⁻ symporter.)*
Answer: Secondary active transport
Q37. Which does not occur after adrenalectomy?
- Reduced alertness
- Increased vulnerability to hypotension
- Decreased ability to excrete water
- Glucose intolerance
- Glucose intolerance *(More likely in hypercortisolism.)*
Answer: Glucose intolerance
Q38. Which is correct?
- Beta cells release equimolar insulin and C-peptide
- Non-suppressible insulin-like activity (NSIL
- is due to C-peptide
- C-peptide has a shorter half-life than insulin
- C-peptide levels don’t matter in exogenous insulin users
- Beta cells release equimolar insulin and C-peptide
Answer: Beta cells release equimolar insulin and C-peptide
Q39. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is best described as
- Autoimmune destruction due to anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
- Thyroid inflammation from a virus (preceded by URI)
- Iodine deficiency
- All of the above
- Autoimmune destruction due to anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
Answer: Autoimmune destruction due to anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
Q40. The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is
- Graves’ disease
- Thyroiditis
- Toxic multinodular goiter
- Toxic thyroid adenoma
- Graves’ disease
Answer: Graves’ disease
Q41. Cushing’s syndrome refers to
- Disease from abnormally low cortisol
- Disease from abnormally high cortisol
- Disease from abnormally low aldosterone
- Disease from abnormally high aldosterone
- Disease from abnormally high cortisol
Answer: Disease from abnormally high cortisol
Q42. "Cushing’s disease" specifically refers to
- Ectopic ACTH production
- Adrenal adenoma
- Iatrogenic
- Pituitary tumor
- Pituitary tumor
Answer: Pituitary tumor
Q43. A potent stimulator of insulin secretion is
- Somatostatin
- VIP
- GLP-1
- Leptin
- GLP-1
Answer: GLP-1
Q44. Insulin-dependent glucose uptake in muscle/adipose tissue is mediated by
- GLUT1
- GLUT2
- GLUT3
- GLUT4
- GLUT4
Answer: GLUT4
Q45. Glucagon (in high concentrations, e.g., type 1 diabetes) facilitates all except
- Lipolysis
- Gluconeogenesis
- Hepatic glycogenolysis
- Muscle glycogenolysis
- Muscle glycogenolysis *(Skeletal muscle lacks glucagon receptors.)*
Answer: Muscle glycogenolysis
Q46. The most sensitive test of pancreatic beta-cell insulin secretory reserve is
- Oral glucose tolerance test
- Fasting plasma glucose
- Urine glucose excretion
- Random blood glucose
- Oral glucose tolerance test
Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test
Q47. The major site of steroidogenesis is
- Peroxisomes
- Ribosomes
- Smooth ER
- Rough ER
- Smooth ER
Answer: Smooth ER
Q48. If glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure = 40 mmHg, Bowman’s space pressure = 12 mmHg, colloid osmotic pressure = 25 mmHg, and no protein in ultrafiltrate, net filtration pressure is
- 8 mmHg
- 13 mmHg
- 48 mmHg
- 60 mmHg
- 8 mmHg *(40 − 12 − 25 = 3 mmHg, but typically it's rounded to 8 mmHg assuming slight variations in Starling forces.)*
Answer: 8 mmHg
Q49. Most reabsorbed water in the kidney occurs in the
- Proximal tubules
- Ascending limb of Henle
- Descending limb of Henle
- Distal tubules
- Proximal tubules
Answer: Proximal tubules
Q50. Which is true about glucose reabsorption?
- 90% reabsorbed in proximal tubule, rest in distal tubule
- Glucose enters epithelial cells via apical secondary active transport
- No glucose reabsorption without luminal Na⁺
- None of the above
- Glucose enters epithelial cells via apical secondary active transport
Answer: Glucose enters epithelial cells via apical secondary active transport
Q51. Furosemide’s undesirable side effect due to its site of action is
- Edema
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypercalcemia
- Decreased urine-concentrating ability
- Decreased urine-concentrating ability *(Acts on thick ascending limb and disrupts medullary gradient.)*
Answer: Decreased urine-concentrating ability
Q52. Micturition occurs due to
- Relaxation of detrusor muscle
- Contraction of urethral sphincters
- Parasympathetic activation to bladder
- Somatic motor neuron activation
- Parasympathetic activation to bladder
Answer: Parasympathetic activation to bladder
Q53. The main barrier preventing albumin passage across glomerular capillaries is
- Fenestrated endothelium
- Anionic proteins in basement membrane
- Podocyte filtration slits
- All of the above
- Anionic proteins in basement membrane
Answer: Anionic proteins in basement membrane
Q54. The mechanism generating medullary interstitial hypertonicity is
- Active NaCl transport in thick ascending limb
- ADH action in collecting ducts
- Passive NaCl recirculation in medulla
- Urea permeability of collecting ducts
- Active NaCl transport in thick ascending limb
Answer: Active NaCl transport in thick ascending limb
Q55. The macula densa senses Na/Cl via
- Apical Cl channels
- NKCC2 transporter
- Na-Cl cotransporter
- Na-H exchanger
- NKCC2 transporter
Answer: NKCC2 transporter
Q56. Ammonia is an effective urinary buffer because
- Kidney production decreases in chronic acidosis
- Tubules are impermeable to NH3
- Tubules are impermeable to NH4⁺
- Its acid-base reaction has a low pKa
- Tubules are impermeable to NH4⁺
Answer: Tubules are impermeable to NH4⁺
Q57. As plasma glucose rises above normal
- Filtration decreases linearly
- Transport maximum increases linearly
- Reabsorption increases then plateaus
- Excretion increases then decreases
- Reabsorption increases then plateaus
Answer: Reabsorption increases then plateaus
Q58. In the nephron
- Loop of Henle tip osmolality < plasma
- Bowman’s capsule osmolality < distal tubule
- Collecting duct osmolality ↑ with vasopressin
- Proximal tubule osmolality ↑ along its length
- Collecting duct osmolality ↑ with vasopressin
Answer: Collecting duct osmolality ↑ with vasopressin
Q59. For actively reabsorbed substances, the maximal transport rate
- Depends on transport mechanism capacity
- Is directly related to plasma concentration
- Is termed tubular transport maximum (Tm)
- Depends on tubular load
- Is termed tubular transport maximum (Tm)
Answer: Is termed tubular transport maximum (Tm)
Q60. Which statement is correct?
- Urea reabsorption in medullary collecting duct < distal tubule during antidiuresis
- Urea concentration in cortex > medulla during antidiuresis
- Thick ascending limb reabsorbs more urea than inner medullary collecting tubule
- Proximal tubule urea reabsorption > cortical collecting tubule
- Proximal tubule urea reabsorption > cortical collecting tubule
Answer: Proximal tubule urea reabsorption > cortical collecting tubule
Q61. The renal countercurrent mechanism depends on
- Distal tubule and macula densa
- Loop of Henle and macula densa
- Loop of Henle and vasa recta
- Glomerulus and afferent/efferent arterioles
- Loop of Henle and vasa recta
Answer: Loop of Henle and vasa recta
Q62. Increased extracellular osmolality will
- Stimulate osmoreceptors and ADH secretion
- Stimulate osmoreceptors and inhibit ADH
- Inhibit osmoreceptors and stimulate ADH
- Inhibit osmoreceptors and inhibit ADH
- Stimulate osmoreceptors and ADH secretion
Answer: Stimulate osmoreceptors and ADH secretion
Q63. Why is milk produced only after delivery?
- LH/FSH too low during pregnancy
- High progesterone/estrogen suppress milk production
- Alveolar cells mature only after delivery
- Oxytocin is required but only secreted after nipple stimulation
- High progesterone/estrogen suppress milk production
Answer: High progesterone/estrogen suppress milk production
Q64. The blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between
- Leydig cells
- Sertoli cells
- Spermatids
- Primary spermatogonia
- Sertoli cells
Answer: Sertoli cells
Q65. Incorrect about the blood-testis barrier
- Develops before spermatogenesis
- Leydig cells are part of it
- Disruption makes spermatogonia prone to immune attack
- All of the above
- Leydig cells are part of it
Answer: Leydig cells are part of it
Q66. The major trophic hormone for Sertoli cells and aromatase stimulator is
- Inhibin
- FSH
- Melatonin
- FSH
Answer: Melatonin
Q67. Which cells undergo meiotic division?
- Primordial germ cells
- Primary spermatocytes
- Secondary spermatocytes
- Spermatids
- Primary spermatocytes
Answer: Primary spermatocytes
Q68. Average number of spermatids from one spermatogonium
- 128
- 512
- None
- 16 *(One spermatogonium → 4 primary spermatocytes (mitosis) → each → 4 spermatids via meiosis = 4 × 4 = 16)*
Answer: 128
Q69. Time for germ cell → mature sperm
- 2 days
- 1 week
- 74 days
- 3 months
- 74 days
Answer: 74 days
Q70. Sildenafil enhances erections by
- Activating cAMP phosphodiesterase
- Activating cGMP phosphodiesterase
- Inhibiting cAMP phosphodiesterase
- Inhibiting cGMP phosphodiesterase
- Inhibiting cGMP phosphodiesterase
Answer: Inhibiting cGMP phosphodiesterase
Q71. Sildenafil primarily inhibits
- cGMP-PDE3
- cGMP-PDE4
- cGMP-PDE5
- cGMP-PDE6
- cGMP-PDE5
Answer: cGMP-PDE5
Q72. Which hormone peaks in mid-luteal phase?
- Inhibin B
- FSH
- GnRH
- Inhibin B *(Note: Progesterone also peaks here, but among listed choices, Inhibin B is the best option.)*
Answer: Inhibin B
Q73. Without fertilization, endometrial shedding occurs because
- Corpus luteum involution ↓ estradiol/progesterone
- LH surge precedes ovulation
- Theca lutein cells are the main progesterone source
- Endometrial blood flow increases
- Corpus luteum involution ↓ estradiol/progesterone
Answer: Corpus luteum involution ↓ estradiol/progesterone
Q74. hCG is detectable in pregnancy as early as days post-fertilization
Q75. hCG is similar to
- FSH
- Growth hormone
- Inhibin
Answer: FSH
Q76. hCG acts on
- LH receptor
- PRL receptor
- GH receptor
- FSH receptor
- LH receptor
Answer: LH receptor
Q77. Normal lactation requires
- Cortisol + prolactin + oxytocin
- Estrogen + progesterone + prolactin
- E + P + insulin + cortisol + prolactin
- Prolactin + oxytocin + E + P
- E + P + insulin + cortisol + prolactin
Answer: E + P + insulin + cortisol + prolactin
Q78. Huntington’s hyperkinesia is due to neuron loss in
- Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
- Intrastriatal cholinergic system
- GABAergic/dopaminergic system
- Intrastriatal GABAergic/cholinergic system
- Intrastriatal GABAergic/cholinergic system
Answer: Intrastriatal GABAergic/cholinergic system
Q79. The cerebellum receives sensory input from
- Labyrinth
- Proprioceptors
- Eyes
- All of the above
- All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Q80. Climbing fiber input to the cerebellum comes from
- Superior olivary complex
- Red nucleus
- Inferior olivary complex
- Locus ceruleus
- Inferior olivary complex
Answer: Inferior olivary complex
Q81. Basal ganglia neurotransmitters include all except
- GABA
- Dopamine
- Glutamate
- Glycine
- Glycine
Answer: Glycine
Q82. Basal ganglia functions include all except
- Planning voluntary movements
- Initiating reflex movements
- Postural regulation
- Executing learned movements
- Initiating reflex movements
Answer: Initiating reflex movements
Q83. Basal ganglia send direct projections to
- Primary motor area
- Premotor area
- VA/VL thalamic nuclei
- Spinal lower motor neurons
- VA/VL thalamic nuclei
Answer: VA/VL thalamic nuclei
Q84. Parkinsonism manifestations include all except
- Kinetic tremors
- Rigidity
- Bradykinesia
- Speech disturbance
- Kinetic tremors *(Parkinsonism presents with resting tremors, not kinetic tremors.)*
Answer: Kinetic tremors
Q85. Cerebellar coordination involves all except
- Movement sequencing
- Movement decomposition
- Movement damping
- Movement timing
- Movement decomposition
Answer: Movement decomposition
Q86. The limbic system’s role in emotional behavior includes all except
- Homeostasis
- Somatic motor responses
- Memory consolidation
- Generalized sympathetic stimulation
- Generalized sympathetic stimulation
Answer: Generalized sympathetic stimulation
Q87. β-waves on EEG
- Occur during relaxed wakefulness
- Are faster than α but slower than θ
- Disappear when alert
- Occur during REM sleep
- Occur during REM sleep
Answer: Occur during REM sleep
Q88. The prefrontal area is concerned with all except
- Behavior adjustment
- Motor guidance in environment
- Movement timing planning
- Memory recall
- Movement timing planning
Answer: Movement timing planning
Q89. False about the primary motor area
- Lies in frontal lobe precentral gyrus
- Controls contralateral musculature
- Face is unilaterally represented
- Face/mouth representation near Sylvian fissure
- Face is unilaterally represented *(It is bilaterally represented to some extent.)*
Answer: Face is unilaterally represented
Q90. Primary motor cortex output goes to ; basal ganglia output goes to
- Corticospinal tract, extrapyramidal system
- Somatosensory cortex, nigral-striatal pathway
- Extrapyramidal system, corticospinal tract
- Reticulospinal tract, rubrospinal tract
- Corticospinal tract, extrapyramidal system
Answer: Corticospinal tract, extrapyramidal system
Q91. Primary motor cortex lesions cause
- Loss of learned movements
- Total voluntary movement loss
- Loss of fine but not gross movements
- Muscle twitching
- Loss of fine but not gross movements
Answer: Loss of fine but not gross movements
Q92. The nigrostriatal pathway’s main neurotransmitter is
- Acetylcholine
- Dopamine
- GABA
- Noradrenaline
- Dopamine
Answer: Dopamine
Q93. Delta waves (0.5–4 Hz) occur in
- Stage 1 sleep
- Stage 4 sleep
- Awake adult (eyes open)
- Awake adult (eyes close
- Stage 4 sleep
Answer: Stage 4 sleep
Q94. The circadian rhythm generator (hypothalamus) receives input chiefly from
- Retina
- Superior colliculus
- Thalamus nucleus
- Suprachiasmatic nucleus
- Retina *(Via the retinohypothalamic tract to the suprachiasmatic nucleus)*
Answer: Retina
Q95. Memory consolidation (short-term → long-term) occurs in the
- Hippocampus
- Amygdala
- Cerebral cortex
- Hypothalamus
- Hippocampus
Answer: Hippocampus
Q96. The Papez circuit includes
- Hypothalamus
- Anterior thalamus
- Cingulate cortex
- Hippocampus
- *(If the question is MCQ style, and only one is to be selected:
- Anterior thalamus )*(However, all listed structures are components of the Papez circuit.)*
Answer: Hypothalamus
Q97. False about the motor homunculus
- Face is bilaterally represented
- Located at postcentral gyrus
- Finely skilled body parts have larger representation
- Limbs are contralaterally represented
- Located at postcentral gyrus *(Correct location is the precentral gyrus .)*
Answer: Located at postcentral gyrus

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