Which statement about bile is true? ---

Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble

Which statement regarding the swallowing reflex is false? ---

Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord

Which of the following statements is TRUE? ---

Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation

What is false about tonic contractions? ---

Is caused by repeated spike waves

Secretion of saliva increases in all of the below except ---

A subject thinks of unappetizing food

Defecation is a reflex action ---

That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord

Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid

Intestinal secretions contain ---

Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides

Pancreatic secretions have many of the same ions as plasma, but concentrations differ. Which is true? ---

Higher secretion rate increases bicarbonate and decreases chloride; plasma has less bicarbonate and more chloride

Which statement is false about the normally innervated stomach? ---

Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked

Passage of gastric contents to the duodenum may cause all except ---

Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi

The cells of the liver ---

Help maintain normal blood glucose

Which statement is incorrect about free fatty acids in plasma? ---

Decrease when blood adrenaline rises

Trypsin inhibitor ---

Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas

Which statement is false about impaired intestinal absorption? ---

Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size

Fat stores in adults ---

Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity

The cause of jaundice is likely to be ---

Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal

Which statement is incorrect about portal hypertension? ---

Portal blood flow through the liver increases

Which statement is false about obesity? ---

Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories

Which is correct? ---

Beta cells release equimolar insulin and C-peptide

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is best described as ---

Autoimmune destruction due to anti-thyroglobulin antibodies

Cushing’s syndrome refers to ---

Disease from abnormally high cortisol

Medical Physiology Ii

98 clinical MCQs in GIT Physiology. Which of the following statements is FALSE? —. Kenya, Africa and global revision.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

Q1. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ---
- Sodium is actively reabsorbed in the colon
- 90% water of colonic content is reabsorbed in the large bowel
- Water intoxication may result from a large volume of enema
- Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon
- Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon (The longest transit time occurs in the transverse and
Answer: Longest intestinal transit time occurs in the ascending colon
Q2. Which tissue layer provides for primary digestive motility? ---
- Mucosa
- Submucosa
- Mesentery
- Muscularis mucosa
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Muscularis mucosa
Q3. Which statement about bile is true? ---
- Contains enzymes required for the digestion of fat
- Contains unconjugated bilirubin
- Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
- Pigments contain iron
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
Q4. Which statement regarding the swallowing reflex is false? ---
- Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord
- Includes inhibition of respiration
- Is initiated by a voluntary act
- Is dependent on intrinsic nerve networks in the esophagus
- Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord (Reflex centers are in the medulla and lower pons.)
Answer: Has its reflex centers in the cervical segments of the spinal cord
Q5. Which of the following statements is TRUE? ---
- Intestinal blood vessel is entirely regulated by the enteric nervous system
- Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
- Peristalsis is a type of spinal response to stretch
- All of the above
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Nitric oxide is the major neurotransmitter for gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
Q6. What is false about tonic contractions? ---
- Lasts a few seconds at a time during ingestion of a meal
- Secondary to continuous calcium influx
- Is caused by repeated spike waves
- Hormones may play a role in stimulating tonic contractions
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Is caused by repeated spike waves
Q7. Which of the following is characteristic of the segmenting movements in the small intestine? ---
- It decreases particle size, which increases the surface area for digest
- It brings the products of digestion to the mucosal surface for absorpti
- It results in the mixing of the luminal contents in front of the propul
- All of the above
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: All of the above
Q8. Secretion of saliva increases in all of the below except ---
- Touch receptors in the mouth are stimulated
- The mouth is flushed with acid fluids with a pH of about 4
- A subject thinks of unappetizing food
- Vomiting is imminent
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: A subject thinks of unappetizing food
Q9. Defecation is a reflex action ---
- That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord
- Whose afferent limb carries impulses from stretch receptors in the colon
- Whose efferent limb travels mainly in sympathetic autonomic nerves
- Which is less likely to be initiated just after a meal than just before it
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: That is coordinated by reflex centers in the sacral cord
Q10. In the stomach ---
- pH rarely falls below 4.0
- Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid
- Ferrous iron is reduced to ferric iron by hydrochloric acid
- Acid secretion is inhibited by pentagastrin
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid
Q11. Intestinal secretions contain ---
- Potassium in a concentration similar to that in extracellular fluid
- Enzymes that are released when the vagus nerve is stimulated
- Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides
- Enzymes that hydrolyze monosaccharides
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides
Q12. A 55-year-old man with chronic alcohol consumption presents with nonspecific complaints of dyspepsia. Examination reveals destruction of gastric glands. This predisposes him to ---
- Steatorrhea
- Gastric hypomotility
- Gastric ulcer
- Anemia
- Anemia (Due to intrinsic factor deficiency and vitamin B12 ma
Answer: Anemia
Q13. Pancreatic secretions have many of the same ions as plasma, but concentrations differ. Which is true? ---
- Higher secretion rate increases bicarbonate and sodium; plasma has less bicarbonate and more sodium
- Higher secretion rate increases bicarbonate and decreases chloride; plasma has less bicarbonate and more chloride
- Higher secretion rate increases osmolarity and pH; plasma has lower osmolarity
- Higher secretion rate increases bicarbonate and potassium; plasma has lower levels of both
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Higher secretion rate increases bicarbonate and decreases chloride; plasma has less bicarbonate and more chloride
Q14. A patient with trigeminal neurapraxia would have the greatest difficulty with ---
- Secondary peristalsis in the esophagus
- Swallowing
- Chewing
- Chewing (Trigeminal nerve innervates muscles of mastication.)
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Chewing
Q15. Which statement is false about the normally innervated stomach? ---
- Secretes gastric juice when food is chewed, even if not swallowed
- Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked
- Both innervated and denervated stomachs can secrete gastric juice after a meal
- Empties more quickly than the denervated stomach
- Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked (HCl secretion is blocked by H2 receptor antagonists
Answer: Cannot secrete HCl when H1 histamine receptors are blocked
Q16. Passage of gastric contents to the duodenum may cause all except ---
- Copious secretion of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate
- Decreased gastric motility
- Contraction of the gallbladder
- Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi
- Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi (It relaxes to allow bile and pancreatic secretions to
Answer: Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi
Q17. Migrating motility complexes (MMCs) occur every 90 minutes between meals. Absence of MMCs increases ---
- Duodenal motility
- Gastric emptying
- Intestinal bacteria
- Mass movements
- Intestinal bacteria (MMCs help clear bacterial overgrowth between meals.)
Answer: Intestinal bacteria
Q18. The cells of the liver ---
- Help maintain normal blood glucose
- Deaminate amino acids to form NH4+ excreted as ammonium salts
- Synthesize Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol)
- Manufacture most immune globulins
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Help maintain normal blood glucose
Q19. Which statement is incorrect about free fatty acids in plasma? ---
- Account for <10% of total fatty acids
- Are complexed with plasma proteins
- Decrease when blood adrenaline rises
- Can be metabolized for energy in cardiac and skeletal muscle
- Decrease when blood adrenaline rises (They actually increase due to lipolysis.)
Answer: Decrease when blood adrenaline rises
Q20. Trypsin inhibitor ---
- Inhibits pancreatic enzymes
- Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas
- Deficiency is implicated in pancreatic cancer
- Is produced by enterocytes
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Inhibits trypsin activation in the pancreas
Q21. Which statement is false about impaired intestinal absorption? ---
- Iron absorption decreases after stomach removal
- Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size
- Water absorption decreases in infants unable to digest disaccharides
- Bile salt malabsorption occurs after terminal ileum removal
- Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size (It causes enlargement , i.e., goiter.)
Answer: Iodide deficiency reduces thyroid size
Q22. The most abundant bile acid is ---
- Cholic acid
- Chenodeoxycholic acid
- Deoxycholic acid
- Lithocholic acid
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Cholic acid
Q23. The total circulating bile salt pool is approximately ---
- 35 mg
- 3.5 g
- 150 mg
- 30 g
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: 3.5 g
Q24. Fat stores in adults ---
- Make up <5% of body weight
- Are smaller in women than men
- Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity
- Release fatty acids when insulin is injected
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Release fatty acids with increased sympathetic activity
Q25. The cause of jaundice is likely to be ---
- Liver disease if albumin is low and bilirubin is unconjugated
- Bile duct obstruction if urine is paler than normal
- Hemolysis if prothrombin level is low
- Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Hemolysis if urine is darker than normal
Q26. Diminished liver function may result in an increase in all except ---
- Albumin-to-globulin ratio
- Size of male breasts
- Unconjugated bilirubin
- Tendency to bleed
- Albumin-to-globulin ratio (This ratio decreases in liver disease due to decrease
Answer: Albumin-to-globulin ratio
Q27. Which statement is incorrect about portal hypertension? ---
- Hepatic sinusoidal resistance increases
- Portal blood flow through the liver increases
- Peritoneal fluid volume increases
- Porto-caval shunt decreases bleeding tendency
- Portal blood flow through the liver increases (It decreases due to increased resistance.)
Answer: Portal blood flow through the liver increases
Q28. Which statement is false about obesity? ---
- Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories
- Associated with increased demands on pancreatic beta cells
- Can be assessed by skin fold thickness
- Can be assessed by weighing in air and water
- Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories (Excess calories, regardless of macronutrient, can lea
Answer: Unlikely on a high-protein diet even with excess calories
Q29. Which hormone is not a glycoprotein? ---
- TRH
- FSH
- hCG
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: TRH
Q30. The three glycoprotein hormones (each with alpha and beta subunits) produced by the pituitary are ---
- FSH, LH, TRH
- TRH, ACTH, LH
- TSH, LH, FSH
- GH, TSH, LH
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: TSH, LH, FSH
Q31. Growth hormone secretion is increased by all except ---
- Pharmacologic hydrocortisone
- Hypoglycemia
- Exercise
- Protein meal
- Pharmacologic hydrocortisone (It suppresses GH when used pharmacologically.)
Answer: Pharmacologic hydrocortisone
Q32. Which statement is true regarding oxytocin? ---
- Essential for milk ejection
- Increases uterine contractility
- Facilitates sperm transport in the uterus
- All of the above
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: All of the above
Q33. Which inhibits lactation? ---
- Prolactin
- Chorionic somatomammotropin
- Bromocriptine
- Growth hormone
- Bromocriptine (It’s a dopamine agonist that suppresses prolactin.)
Answer: Bromocriptine
Q34. The major stimulator of parathyroid hormone release is ---
- Vitamin D
- Fall in plasma ionized calcium
- Calcitonin
- Fall in plasma phosphate
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Fall in plasma ionized calcium
Q35. Which hormone lowers plasma ionized calcium? ---
- Calcineurin
- Calcitonin
- Parathyroid hormone
- PTH-related peptide
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Calcitonin
Q36. For a euthyroid woman (not pregnant/nursing, no meds), the recommended daily iodine intake is ---
- 75 μg
- 150 μg
- 225 μg
- 300 μg
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: 150 μg
Q37. Iodine is concentrated in thyroid follicular cells by ---
- Primary active transport
- Secondary active transport
- Simple diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Secondary active transport (Via Na⁺/I⁻ symporter.)
Answer: Secondary active transport
Q38. Which does not occur after adrenalectomy? ---
- Reduced alertness
- Increased vulnerability to hypotension
- Decreased ability to excrete water
- Glucose intolerance
- Glucose intolerance (More likely in hypercortisolism.)
Answer: Glucose intolerance
Q39. Which is correct? ---
- Beta cells release equimolar insulin and C-peptide
- Non-suppressible insulin-like activity (NSIL
- is due to C-peptide
- C-peptide has a shorter half-life than insulin
- C-peptide levels don’t matter in exogenous insulin users
Answer: Beta cells release equimolar insulin and C-peptide
Q40. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is best described as ---
- Autoimmune destruction due to anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
- Thyroid inflammation from a virus (preceded by URI)
- Iodine deficiency
- All of the above
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Autoimmune destruction due to anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
Q41. The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is ---
- Graves’ disease
- Thyroiditis
- Toxic multinodular goiter
- Toxic thyroid adenoma
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Graves’ disease
Q42. Cushing’s syndrome refers to ---
- Disease from abnormally low cortisol
- Disease from abnormally high cortisol
- Disease from abnormally low aldosterone
- Disease from abnormally high aldosterone
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Disease from abnormally high cortisol
Q43. "Cushing’s disease" specifically refers to ---
- Ectopic ACTH production
- Adrenal adenoma
- Iatrogenic
- Pituitary tumor
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Pituitary tumor
Q44. A potent stimulator of insulin secretion is ---
- Somatostatin
- VIP
- GLP-1
- Leptin
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: GLP-1
Q45. Insulin-dependent glucose uptake in muscle/adipose tissue is mediated by ---
- GLUT1
- GLUT2
- GLUT3
- GLUT4
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: GLUT4
Q46. Glucagon (in high concentrations, e.g., type 1 diabetes) facilitates all except ---
- Lipolysis
- Gluconeogenesis
- Hepatic glycogenolysis
- Muscle glycogenolysis
- Muscle glycogenolysis (Skeletal muscle lacks glucagon receptors.)
Answer: Muscle glycogenolysis
Q47. The most sensitive test of pancreatic beta-cell insulin secretory reserve is ---
- Oral glucose tolerance test
- Fasting plasma glucose
- Urine glucose excretion
- Random blood glucose
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test
Q48. The major site of steroidogenesis is ---
- Peroxisomes
- Ribosomes
- Smooth ER
- Rough ER
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Smooth ER
Q49. If glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure = 40 mmHg, Bowman’s space pressure = 12 mmHg, colloid osmotic pressure = 25 mmHg, and no protein in ultrafiltrate, net filtration pressure is ---
- 8 mmHg
- 13 mmHg
- 48 mmHg
- 60 mmHg
- 8 mmHg (40 − 12 − 25 = 3 mmHg, but typically it's rounded to
Answer: 8 mmHg
Q50. Most reabsorbed water in the kidney occurs in the ---
- Proximal tubules
- Ascending limb of Henle
- Descending limb of Henle
- Distal tubules
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Proximal tubules
Q51. Which is true about glucose reabsorption? ---
- 90% reabsorbed in proximal tubule, rest in distal tubule
- Glucose enters epithelial cells via apical secondary active transport
- No glucose reabsorption without luminal Na⁺
- None of the above
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Glucose enters epithelial cells via apical secondary active transport
Q52. Furosemide’s undesirable side effect due to its site of action is ---
- Edema
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypercalcemia
- Decreased urine-concentrating ability
- Decreased urine-concentrating ability (Acts on thick ascending limb and disrupts medullary g
Answer: Decreased urine-concentrating ability
Q53. Micturition occurs due to ---
- Relaxation of detrusor muscle
- Contraction of urethral sphincters
- Parasympathetic activation to bladder
- Somatic motor neuron activation
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Parasympathetic activation to bladder
Q54. The main barrier preventing albumin passage across glomerular capillaries is ---
- Fenestrated endothelium
- Anionic proteins in basement membrane
- Podocyte filtration slits
- All of the above
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Anionic proteins in basement membrane
Q55. The mechanism generating medullary interstitial hypertonicity is ---
- Active NaCl transport in thick ascending limb
- ADH action in collecting ducts
- Passive NaCl recirculation in medulla
- Urea permeability of collecting ducts
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Active NaCl transport in thick ascending limb
Q56. The macula densa senses Na/Cl via ---
- Apical Cl channels
- NKCC2 transporter
- Na-Cl cotransporter
- Na-H exchanger
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: NKCC2 transporter
Q57. Ammonia is an effective urinary buffer because ---
- Kidney production decreases in chronic acidosis
- Tubules are impermeable to NH3
- Tubules are impermeable to NH4⁺
- Its acid-base reaction has a low pKa
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Tubules are impermeable to NH4⁺
Q58. As plasma glucose rises above normal ---
- Filtration decreases linearly
- Transport maximum increases linearly
- Reabsorption increases then plateaus
- Excretion increases then decreases
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Reabsorption increases then plateaus
Q59. In the nephron ---
- Loop of Henle tip osmolality < plasma
- Bowman’s capsule osmolality < distal tubule
- Collecting duct osmolality ↑ with vasopressin
- Proximal tubule osmolality ↑ along its length
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Collecting duct osmolality ↑ with vasopressin
Q60. For actively reabsorbed substances, the maximal transport rate ---
- Depends on transport mechanism capacity
- Is directly related to plasma concentration
- Is termed tubular transport maximum (Tm)
- Depends on tubular load
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Is termed tubular transport maximum (Tm)
Q61. Which statement is correct? ---
- Urea reabsorption in medullary collecting duct < distal tubule during antidiuresis
- Urea concentration in cortex > medulla during antidiuresis
- Thick ascending limb reabsorbs more urea than inner medullary collecting tubule
- Proximal tubule urea reabsorption > cortical collecting tubule
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Proximal tubule urea reabsorption > cortical collecting tubule
Q62. The renal countercurrent mechanism depends on ---
- Distal tubule and macula densa
- Loop of Henle and macula densa
- Loop of Henle and vasa recta
- Glomerulus and afferent/efferent arterioles
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Loop of Henle and vasa recta
Q63. Increased extracellular osmolality will ---
- Stimulate osmoreceptors and ADH secretion
- Stimulate osmoreceptors and inhibit ADH
- Inhibit osmoreceptors and stimulate ADH
- Inhibit osmoreceptors and inhibit ADH
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Stimulate osmoreceptors and ADH secretion
Q64. Why is milk produced only after delivery? ---
- LH/FSH too low during pregnancy
- High progesterone/estrogen suppress milk production
- Alveolar cells mature only after delivery
- Oxytocin is required but only secreted after nipple stimulation
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: High progesterone/estrogen suppress milk production
Q65. The blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between ---
- Leydig cells
- Sertoli cells
- Spermatids
- Primary spermatogonia
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Sertoli cells
Q66. Incorrect about the blood-testis barrier ---
- Develops before spermatogenesis
- Leydig cells are part of it
- Disruption makes spermatogonia prone to immune attack
- All of the above
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Leydig cells are part of it
Q67. The major trophic hormone for Sertoli cells and aromatase stimulator is ---
- Inhibin
- FSH
- Melatonin
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Melatonin
Q68. Which cells undergo meiotic division? ---
- Primordial germ cells
- Primary spermatocytes
- Secondary spermatocytes
- Spermatids
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Primary spermatocytes
Q69. Average number of spermatids from one spermatogonium ---
- 128
- 512
- None
- 16 (One spermatogonium → 4 primary spermatocytes (mitosis
Answer: 128
Q70. Time for germ cell → mature sperm ---
- 2 days
- 1 week
- 74 days
- 3 months
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: 74 days
Q71. Sildenafil enhances erections by ---
- Activating cAMP phosphodiesterase
- Activating cGMP phosphodiesterase
- Inhibiting cAMP phosphodiesterase
- Inhibiting cGMP phosphodiesterase
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Inhibiting cGMP phosphodiesterase
Q72. Sildenafil primarily inhibits ---
- cGMP-PDE3
- cGMP-PDE4
- cGMP-PDE5
- cGMP-PDE6
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: cGMP-PDE5
Q73. Which hormone peaks in mid-luteal phase? ---
- Inhibin B
- FSH
- GnRH
- Inhibin B (Note: Progesterone also peaks here, but among listed
Answer: Inhibin B
Q74. Without fertilization, endometrial shedding occurs because ---
- Corpus luteum involution ↓ estradiol/progesterone
- LH surge precedes ovulation
- Theca lutein cells are the main progesterone source
- Endometrial blood flow increases
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Corpus luteum involution ↓ estradiol/progesterone
Q75. hCG is detectable in pregnancy as early as days post-fertilization ---
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Mostly unchanged in early disease
Q76. hCG is similar to ---
- FSH
- Growth hormone
- Inhibin
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: FSH
Q77. hCG acts on ---
- LH receptor
- PRL receptor
- GH receptor
- FSH receptor
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: LH receptor
Q78. Normal lactation requires ---
- Cortisol + prolactin + oxytocin
- Estrogen + progesterone + prolactin
- E + P + insulin + cortisol + prolactin
- Prolactin + oxytocin + E + P
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: E + P + insulin + cortisol + prolactin
Q79. Huntington’s hyperkinesia is due to neuron loss in ---
- Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
- Intrastriatal cholinergic system
- GABAergic/dopaminergic system
- Intrastriatal GABAergic/cholinergic system
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Intrastriatal GABAergic/cholinergic system
Q80. The cerebellum receives sensory input from ---
- Labyrinth
- Proprioceptors
- Eyes
- All of the above
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: All of the above
Q81. Climbing fiber input to the cerebellum comes from ---
- Superior olivary complex
- Red nucleus
- Inferior olivary complex
- Locus ceruleus
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Inferior olivary complex
Q82. Basal ganglia neurotransmitters include all except ---
- GABA
- Dopamine
- Glutamate
- Glycine
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Glycine
Q83. Basal ganglia functions include all except ---
- Planning voluntary movements
- Initiating reflex movements
- Postural regulation
- Executing learned movements
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Initiating reflex movements
Q84. Basal ganglia send direct projections to ---
- Primary motor area
- Premotor area
- VA/VL thalamic nuclei
- Spinal lower motor neurons
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: VA/VL thalamic nuclei
Q85. Parkinsonism manifestations include all except ---
- Kinetic tremors
- Rigidity
- Bradykinesia
- Speech disturbance
- Kinetic tremors (Parkinsonism presents with resting tremors, not kinet
Answer: Kinetic tremors
Q86. Cerebellar coordination involves all except ---
- Movement sequencing
- Movement decomposition
- Movement damping
- Movement timing
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Movement decomposition
Q87. The limbic system’s role in emotional behavior includes all except ---
- Homeostasis
- Somatic motor responses
- Memory consolidation
- Generalized sympathetic stimulation
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Generalized sympathetic stimulation
Q88. β-waves on EEG ---
- Occur during relaxed wakefulness
- Are faster than α but slower than θ
- Disappear when alert
- Occur during REM sleep
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Occur during REM sleep
Q89. The prefrontal area is concerned with all except ---
- Behavior adjustment
- Motor guidance in environment
- Movement timing planning
- Memory recall
- Occurs only after chronic exposure
Answer: Movement timing planning
Q90. False about the primary motor area ---
- Lies in frontal lobe precentral gyrus
- Controls contralateral musculature
- Face is unilaterally represented
- Face/mouth representation near Sylvian fissure
- Face is unilaterally represented (It is bilaterally represented to some extent.)
Answer: Face is unilaterally represented
Q91. Primary motor cortex output goes to ; basal ganglia output goes to ---
- Corticospinal tract, extrapyramidal system
- Somatosensory cortex, nigral-striatal pathway
- Extrapyramidal system, corticospinal tract
- Reticulospinal tract, rubrospinal tract
- Primarily an incidental laboratory finding
Answer: Corticospinal tract, extrapyramidal system
Q92. Primary motor cortex lesions cause ---
- Loss of learned movements
- Total voluntary movement loss
- Loss of fine but not gross movements
- Muscle twitching
- Usually mediated by non-specific mechanisms
Answer: Loss of fine but not gross movements
Q93. The nigrostriatal pathway’s main neurotransmitter is ---
- Acetylcholine
- Dopamine
- GABA
- Noradrenaline
- Mostly unchanged in early disease
Answer: Dopamine
Q94. Delta waves (0.5–4 Hz) occur in ---
- Stage 1 sleep
- Stage 4 sleep
- Awake adult (eyes open)
- Awake adult (eyes close
- Reduced by routine feedback control
Answer: Stage 4 sleep
Q95. The circadian rhythm generator (hypothalamus) receives input chiefly from ---
- Retina
- Superior colliculus
- Thalamus nucleus
- Suprachiasmatic nucleus
- Retina (Via the retinohypothalamic tract to the suprachiasmat
Answer: Retina
Q96. Memory consolidation (short-term → long-term) occurs in the ---
- Hippocampus
- Amygdala
- Cerebral cortex
- Hypothalamus
- Limited to a single tissue compartment
Answer: Hippocampus
Q97. The Papez circuit includes ---
- Hypothalamus
- Anterior thalamus
- Cingulate cortex
- Hippocampus
- (If the question is MCQ style, and only one is to be selected
Answer: Hypothalamus
Q98. False about the motor homunculus
- Face is bilaterally represented
- Located at postcentral gyrus
- Finely skilled body parts have larger representation
- Limbs are contralaterally represented
- Located at postcentral gyrus (Correct location is the precentral gyrus .)
Answer: Located at postcentral gyrus

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