CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY MCQs – 32 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

32 Year 2: Cellular Immunology exam questions on CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY MCQs for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations and written questions. Sa

This MCQ set contains 32 questions on CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY MCQs in the Year 2: Cellular Immunology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: In liver cells, bilirubin is mainly conjugated with

  1. A. Glucose
  2. B. Cholic Acid
  3. C. Glycine
  4. D. Glucuronic Acid
  5. E. Iduronic Acid

Correct answer: D – Glucuronic Acid

Q2: Which of the following pathways are important in RBC energy metabolism?

  1. A. The phosphogluconate pathway, Glycolysis, Luebering-Rapapport
  2. B. The TCA cycle and the electron transport chain, 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate pathway, glycolysis
  3. C. The TCA cycle and the electron transport chain, 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate pathway, HMP shunt
  4. D. B and C
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: A – The phosphogluconate pathway, Glycolysis, Luebering-Rapapport

Q3: An abnormal increase in red blood cell count is characterized by

  1. A. Anemia
  2. B. Leukaemia
  3. C. Thrombocytopenia
  4. D. Polycythemia
  5. E. Hemoglobinopathies

Correct answer: D – Polycythemia

Q4: Which of the following is the brain’s preferred source of energy?

  1. A. Glucose
  2. B. Glycogen
  3. C. Ketone bodies
  4. D. Lactate
  5. E. Fatty acids

Correct answer: A – Glucose

Q5: Which of these statements is TRUE?

  1. A. A-negative blood can probably be safely donated to a person with A-positive blood.
  2. B. Antibodies against the Rh antigen do not develop unless an Rh-positive person is exposed to Rh-negative blood.
  3. C. The largest percentages of people in the U.S. are Rh-negative.
  4. D. Rh-negative individuals can receive many transfusions of Rh-positive blood before they have a transfusion reaction.
  5. E. Rh-negative mothers cannot have an Rh-positive baby.

Correct answer: A – A-negative blood can probably be safely donated to a person with A-positive blood.

Q6: One of the following statements is TRUE regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn

  1. A. Before birth, bilirubin produced by ruptured erythrocytes is removed through the placenta.
  2. B. This condition usually occurs with the second Rh-positive pregnancy of the Rh-negative mother.
  3. C. After birth, this condition may continue because maternal antibodies are still present in the baby’s system.
  4. D. Jaundice may occur if bilirubin accumulates in tissues.
  5. E. All of these statements are correct.

Correct answer: E – All of these statements are correct.

Q7: Hematocrit is a measure of

  1. A. The amount of hemoglobin in a given volume of blood.
  2. B. The percentage of total blood volume composed of erythrocytes.
  3. C. The percentage of total blood volume composed of leukocytes.
  4. D. The percentage of total blood volume composed of thrombocytes.
  5. E. The percentage of erythrocytes divided by the percentage of leukocytes.

Correct answer: B – The percentage of total blood volume composed of erythrocytes.

Q8: High-energy phosphate bonds for instant human muscle contraction are readily provided by

  1. A. Arginine phosphate
  2. B. Oxidative phosphorylation
  3. C. ATP
  4. D. Glycolysis
  5. E. Phosphocreatine

Correct answer: E – Phosphocreatine

Q9: The Rapapport-Luebering cycle is mainly located in

  1. A. Liver
  2. B. Erythrocytes
  3. C. Muscles
  4. D. Brain
  5. E. Kidney

Correct answer: B – Erythrocytes

Q10: The major site of erythrocyte production in humans is the

  1. A. Kidney
  2. B. Liver
  3. C. Bone marrow
  4. D. Spleen
  5. E. Brain

Correct answer: C – Bone marrow

Q11: The most rapid method to resynthesize ATP during exercise is through

  1. A. Glycolysis
  2. B. Phosphocreatine breakdown
  3. C. Glycogenolysis
  4. D. Gluconeogenesis
  5. E. Electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation

Correct answer: B – Phosphocreatine breakdown

Q12: Which of the following is FALSE of cardiac and skeletal muscles?

  1. A. Cardiac muscles are attached to bones; skeletal muscles occur in the heart.
  2. B. Skeletal and cardiac muscles are controlled voluntarily and involuntarily, respectively.
  3. C. Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated; cardiac cells are mononucleated.
  4. D. Both have striated appearance.
  5. E. Skeletal muscle aids locomotion; cardiac aids in blood circulation.

Correct answer: A – Cardiac muscles are attached to bones; skeletal muscles occur in the heart.

Q13: Excessive destruction of erythrocytes due to enzyme deficiency can result in

  1. A. Thalassemia
  2. B. Aplastic anemia
  3. C. Pernicious anemia
  4. D. Hemolytic anemia
  5. E. Microcytic anemia

Correct answer: D – Hemolytic anemia

Q14: During hemoglobin recycling in the spleen, heme is initially converted into

  1. A. Bilirubin
  2. B. Biliverdin
  3. C. Urobilinogen
  4. D. Stercobilinogen
  5. E. Globulin

Correct answer: B – Biliverdin

Q15: Erythrocyte

  1. A. Production is inhibited by anemia due to blood loss.
  2. B. Production is impaired at high altitude.
  3. C. Production is stimulated by erythropoietin.
  4. D. Are produced by the bone marrow of almost every bone in the body during the first 5 years of life.
  5. E. Are not produced in the fetal liver.

Correct answer: C – Production is stimulated by erythropoietin.

Q16: Bile salts

  1. A. Are converted to secondary bile salts in the colon.
  2. B. Inhibit fat digestion.
  3. C. Inhibits intestinal motility.
  4. D. Help digestion of proteins.
  5. E. Stimulate bile secretion from the liver.

Correct answer: A – Are converted to secondary bile salts in the colon.

Q17: The following are all functions of the kidney EXCEPT

  1. A. Control blood pressure.
  2. B. Control body temperature.
  3. C. To remove waste products from the body.
  4. D. To synthesize electrolytes.
  5. E. To synthesize red blood cells.

Correct answer: B – Control body temperature.

Q18: Substances which are inactivated and excreted by the liver include the following EXCEPT

  1. A. Amino acid
  2. B. Drugs
  3. C. Steroid hormones
  4. D. Enzymes
  5. E. Bilirubin

Correct answer: A – Amino acid

Q19: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is an example of which type of marker?

  1. A. Steroid
  2. B. Enzyme
  3. C. Oncofetal antigen
  4. D. Hormone
  5. E. Carbohydrate

Correct answer: B – Enzyme

Q20: Elevation in total CSF protein may be seen in all the following states EXCEPT

  1. A. Epilepsy
  2. B. Brain tumor
  3. C. CNS trauma
  4. D. Stroke
  5. E. Bacterial meningitis

Correct answer: A – Epilepsy

Q21: Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia?

  1. A. Sepsis
  2. B. Acute liver failure
  3. C. Chronic renal failure
  4. D. Insulinoma
  5. E. Tay-Sachs disease

Correct answer: E – Tay-Sachs disease

Q22: Which of the following proteins is the best indicator of hemolysis?

  1. A. Ceruloplasmin
  2. B. Hemosiderin
  3. C. Transferrin
  4. D. Haptoglobin
  5. E. Ferritin

Correct answer: D – Haptoglobin

Q23: In the diabetic patient, residual insulin secretion can be monitored by

  1. A. Glucose tolerance test
  2. B. C-peptide levels
  3. C. Pancreatic polypeptide levels
  4. D. Insulin levels
  5. E. Amylase test

Correct answer: B – C-peptide levels

Q24: Which of the following most accurately describes the release of pancreatic enzymes following acute pancreatitis?

  1. A. Enzymes are released within 2-12 hours and return to normal after 7 days.
  2. B. Peak lipase concentrations are higher than peak amylase concentrations.
  3. C. Amylase and lipase are increased 2- to 4-fold over normal.
  4. D. Enzymes are released within 2-12 hours and return to normal after 3-4 days.
  5. E. Peak amylase concentrations are higher than peak lipase concentrations.

Correct answer: D – Enzymes are released within 2-12 hours and return to normal after 3-4 days.

Q25: The probability that disease is present when a test result falls outside the reference interval is called the test’s

  1. A. Specificity
  2. B. Sensitivity
  3. C. Positive predictive value
  4. D. Efficiency
  5. E. Efficiency and sensitivity

Correct answer: C – Positive predictive value

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