CHEMICAL PATH MCQS

70 clinical MCQs in Uncategorized. Which tumor marker is most specific for hepatocellular carcinoma?

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Which tumor marker is most specific for hepatocellular carcinoma?

    Answer: AFP

  2. Q2. A patient with small cell lung cancer develops hyponatremia with concentrated urine. The ectopic hormone responsible is:

    Answer: ADH

  3. Q3. CA 125 is the tumor marker of choice for monitoring treatment response in:

    Answer: Ovarian cancer

  4. Q4. Which lab finding best distinguishes ectopic ACTH syndrome from pituitary Cushing disease?

    Answer: Very high ACTH with failed high-dose dexamethasone suppression

  5. Q5. A man with bronchogenic carcinoma has calcium 13.2 mg/dL with suppressed PTH. The mediator is:

    Answer: PTHrP

  6. Q6. The most common cause of delayed puberty in boys is:

    Answer: Constitutional delay of growth and puberty

  7. Q7. A 16-year-old girl has no breast development, primary amenorrhea, and elevated FSH/LH. Karyotype is 45,X. Diagnosis:

    Answer: Turner syndrome

  8. Q8. Precocious puberty in girls is defined as secondary sexual development before age:

    Answer: 8 years

  9. Q9. A 6-year-old boy has pubic hair, enlarged testes, and pubertal LH response to GnRH. Diagnosis:

    Answer: Central precocious puberty

  10. Q10. The most common cause of hirsutism in reproductive-age women is:

    Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

  11. Q11. Best biochemical marker of adrenal androgen excess in hirsutism:

    Answer: DHEA-S

  12. Q12. Which feature is NOT part of virilism in women?

    Answer: Galactorrhea

  13. Q13. Semen analysis: count 10 million/mL, motility 20%, morphology 2%. This is:

    Answer: Oligoasthenoteratozoospermia

  14. Q14. WHO lower reference limit for normal sperm concentration is:

    Answer: 15 million/mL

  15. Q15. Elevated FSH with azoospermia in a male infertility workup suggests:

    Answer: Primary testicular failure

  16. Q16. Aminoglycoside trough level sample should be collected:

    Answer: Just before the next dose

  17. Q17. Which drug has the narrowest therapeutic index requiring routine TDM?

    Answer: Digoxin

  18. Q18. In acetaminophen toxicity, the antidote N-acetylcysteine works by replenishing:

    Answer: Glutathione

  19. Q19. Carbon monoxide poisoning is confirmed by measuring:

    Answer: Carboxyhemoglobin

  20. Q20. In salicylate toxicity, the earliest acid-base disturbance is:

    Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

  21. Q21. Phenylketonuria results from deficiency of:

    Answer: Phenylalanine hydroxylase

  22. Q22. The newborn screening test for PKU measures:

    Answer: Serum phenylalanine

  23. Q23. A patient with dark urine on standing, ochronosis, and arthritis has:

    Answer: Alkaptonuria

  24. Q24. Maple syrup urine disease involves accumulation of:

    Answer: Branched-chain amino acids

  25. Q25. Classic galactosemia is due to deficiency of:

    Answer: Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

  26. Q26. The gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis is:

    Answer: DEXA scan

  27. Q27. In Paget's disease of bone, which marker is most characteristically elevated?

    Answer: Alkaline phosphatase

  28. Q28. Primary hyperparathyroidism characteristically shows:

    Answer: High calcium, low phosphate, high PTH

  29. Q29. The enzyme deficient in classic gout leading to hyperuricemia is:

    Answer: Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)

  30. Q30. Allopurinol treats gout by inhibiting:

    Answer: Xanthine oxidase

  31. Q31. The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates both FSH and LH release is:

    Answer: GnRH

  32. Q32. Growth hormone excess before epiphyseal fusion causes:

    Answer: Gigantism

  33. Q33. The best screening test for acromegaly is:

    Answer: IGF-1

  34. Q34. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by:

    Answer: Low urine osmolality, high serum osmolality

  35. Q35. A patient has low TSH and high free T4. The most likely diagnosis is:

    Answer: Primary hyperthyroidism

  36. Q36. The best initial test to evaluate thyroid function is:

    Answer: TSH

  37. Q37. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is associated with antibodies against:

    Answer: Thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase

  38. Q38. The HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over the preceding:

    Answer: 4 months

  39. Q39. Diagnostic criterion for diabetes mellitus using fasting plasma glucose is:

    Answer: ≥ 7.0 mmol/L

  40. Q40. In diabetic ketoacidosis, the predominant ketone body measured by nitroprusside test is:

    Answer: Acetoacetate

  41. Q41. C-peptide measurement helps differentiate type 1 DM from factitious hypoglycemia because:

    Answer: Exogenous insulin suppresses C-peptide

  42. Q42. The classic triad of Cushing syndrome includes all EXCEPT:

    Answer: Hypoglycemia

  43. Q43. The best outpatient screening test for Cushing syndrome is:

    Answer: Overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test

  44. Q44. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome) characteristically presents with:

    Answer: Hypokalemia, hypertension, low renin

  45. Q45. In congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which metabolite is elevated?

    Answer: 17-hydroxyprogesterone

  46. Q46. The earliest marker of glomerular damage in diabetic nephropathy is:

    Answer: Microalbuminuria

  47. Q47. Which formula is used to estimate GFR in clinical practice?

    Answer: Cockcroft-Gault or CKD-EPI

  48. Q48. In nephrotic syndrome, the urine dipstick finding is:

    Answer: 4+ proteinuria

  49. Q49. The most sensitive early indicator of tubular dysfunction is:

    Answer: Urine beta-2 microglobulin

  50. Q50. In pre-renal acute kidney injury, urine sodium is typically:

    Answer: < 20 mmol/L

  51. Q51. The BUN/creatinine ratio in pre-renal AKI is typically:

    Answer: > 20:1

  52. Q52. Calcium oxalate crystals in urine are associated with which type of renal calculi?

    Answer: Calcium oxalate stones

  53. Q53. Struvite (triple phosphate) renal stones are associated with:

    Answer: Urease-producing bacterial infections

  54. Q54. In chronic kidney disease, which electrolyte abnormality is most life-threatening?

    Answer: Hyperkalemia

  55. Q55. The enzyme deficient in acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) is:

    Answer: Porphobilinogen deaminase

  56. Q56. The most reliable urine marker during an acute attack of AIP is:

    Answer: Porphobilinogen

  57. Q57. Porphyria cutanea tarda presents with:

    Answer: Photosensitive skin blistering

  58. Q58. Which porphyria is associated with deficiency of ferrochelatase and presents with photosensitivity?

    Answer: Erythropoietic protoporphyria

  59. Q59. The rate-limiting enzyme of heme synthesis is:

    Answer: ALA synthase

  60. Q60. Prolactinoma causes infertility in women primarily by:

    Answer: Inhibiting GnRH pulsatility

  61. Q61. Which pituitary hormone deficiency occurs last in progressive hypopituitarism?

    Answer: TSH

  62. Q62. A patient with lithium therapy develops polyuria and polydipsia. The most likely mechanism is:

    Answer: Nephrogenic DI from ADH resistance

  63. Q63. The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is characterized by:

    Answer: Hyponatremia with inappropriately concentrated urine

  64. Q64. In Addison's disease, the expected electrolyte pattern is:

    Answer: Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia

  65. Q65. The confirmatory test for primary adrenal insufficiency is:

    Answer: Short Synacthen (ACTH stimulation) test

  66. Q66. Calcitonin is used as a tumor marker for:

    Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer

  67. Q67. A patient has low serum calcium, high phosphate, and elevated PTH. The most likely diagnosis is:

    Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

  68. Q68. The oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) uses a glucose load of:

    Answer: 75 g

  69. Q69. Homocystinuria is associated with deficiency of:

    Answer: Cystathionine beta-synthase

  70. Q70. In von Gierke disease (GSD type I), the deficient enzyme causes fasting hypoglycemia due to inability to perform:

    Answer: Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis via glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

View on OmpathStudy