Chemical Pathology MCQs

83 clinical MCQs in Endocrine and Metabolic Pathology. Which of the following is NOT measured in a basic metabolic panel (BMP)?. Kenya, Africa and globa...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Which of the following is NOT measured in a basic metabolic panel (BMP)?

    Answer: Bilirubin

    Explanation: A BMP typically includes glucose, electrolytes (Na+, K+, Cl-, CO2), BUN, and creatinine. Bilirubin is part of liver function tests, not the BMP. ---

  2. Q2. Which test is the most specific for liver function?

    Answer: ALT

    Explanation: ALT (Alanine aminotransferase) is more specific for hepatocellular injury as it's primarily found in the liver, while AST is found in multiple organs including heart and muscle. ---

  3. Q3. Which electrolyte is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid?

    Answer: Sodium

    Explanation: Sodium (Na+) is the predominant cation in extracellular fluid (normal: 135-145 mEq/L), while potassium is the main intracellular cation. ---

  4. Q4. An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis can be caused by

    Answer: Lactic acidosis

    Explanation: Lactic acidosis causes increased anion gap metabolic acidosis due to organic acid accumulation. Diarrhea and RTA typically cause normal anion gap acidosis. ---

  5. Q5. Which analyte is most useful in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

    Answer: Serum protein electrophoresis

    Explanation: SPEP detects monoclonal proteins (M-proteins) characteristic of multiple myeloma, showing abnormal immunoglobulin bands. ## Section 2: Endocrine Disorders & Hormone Assays ---

  6. Q6. Which of the following is an adrenal hormone?

    Answer: Prolactin

    Explanation: Cortisol is produced by the adrenal cortex. T3 is thyroid hormone, prolactin is pituitary hormone, and ADH is produced by the hypothalamus. ---

  7. Q7. In primary hypothyroidism, TSH levels are typically

    Answer: High

    Explanation: Primary hypothyroidism involves thyroid gland failure, so TSH is elevated due to loss of negative feedback from low thyroid hormones. ---

  8. Q8. Which hormone is most useful for diagnosing acromegaly?

    Answer: IGF-1

    Explanation: IGF-1 is more stable than GH and better reflects long-term GH secretion, making it the preferred screening test for acromegaly. ---

  9. Q9. Which test is used to confirm Cushing's syndrome?

    Answer: Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

    Explanation: This test differentiates normal individuals (who suppress cortisol) from those with Cushing's syndrome (who fail to suppress). ---

  10. Q10. Which enzyme deficiency is most common in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

    Answer: 21-hydroxylase

    Explanation: 21-hydroxylase deficiency accounts for ~95% of CAH cases, leading to cortisol deficiency and androgen excess. ## Section 3: Kidney Function & Electrolytes ---

  11. Q11. The best marker for glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is

    Answer: Serum cystatin C Correct

    Explanation: Cystatin C is less affected by muscle mass, age, and diet compared to creatinine, providing a more accurate GFR assessment. ---

  12. Q12. A low fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) suggests

    Answer: Prerenal azotemia

    Explanation: FENa <1% indicates intact tubular function with appropriate sodium retention, typical of prerenal causes of AKI. ---

  13. Q13. Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with ECG changes such as peaked T waves?

    Answer: Hyperkalemia

    Explanation: Hyperkalemia causes characteristic ECG changes: peaked T waves, widened QRS, and can progress to sine waves and cardiac arrest. ---

  14. Q14. Which acid-base disorder is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease?

    Answer: Metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: CKD causes metabolic acidosis due to decreased acid excretion, reduced ammonia production, and bicarbonate loss. ---

  15. Q15. Which of the following conditions leads to an increased BUN-to-creatinine ratio?

    Answer: Prerenal azotemia

    Explanation: Prerenal azotemia increases BUN more than creatinine due to enhanced urea reabsorption, raising the BUN:Cr ratio 20:1. ## Section 4: Liver Function & Lipid Metabolism ---

  16. Q16. Which liver enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury?

    Answer: ALT

    Explanation: ALT is predominantly found in hepatocytes, making it more specific for liver injury than AST, which is also found in cardiac and skeletal muscle. ---

  17. Q17. Which of the following is the best marker of cholestasis?

    Answer: ALP

    Explanation: Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in cholestatic conditions due to increased synthesis and release from bile duct epithelium. ---

  18. Q18. Which lipoprotein is primarily responsible for transporting cholesterol to tissues?

    Answer: LDL

    Explanation: LDL carries cholesterol from liver to peripheral tissues and is the major atherogenic lipoprotein. ---

  19. Q19. Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by a defect in which receptor?

    Answer: LDL receptor

    Explanation: FH is caused by mutations in the LDL receptor gene, leading to impaired cholesterol uptake and very high LDL levels. ---

  20. Q20. A fasting glucose level of 8.0 mmol/L (144 mg/dL) suggests

    Answer: Diabetes mellitus

    Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) indicates diabetes mellitus. 144 mg/dL clearly meets this criterion. ## Section 5: Tumor Markers & Cancer Screening ---

  21. Q21. Which tumor marker is most commonly used for ovarian cancer screening?

    Answer: CA 125

    Explanation: CA 125 is the most widely used tumor marker for ovarian cancer, though it's not specific and can be elevated in benign conditions. ---

  22. Q22. A patient with suspected pancreatic cancer is likely to have elevated levels of

    Answer: CA 19-9

    Explanation: CA 19-9 is the most useful tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma, though it's also elevated in biliary obstruction. ---

  23. Q23. Which tumor marker is most specific for hepatocellular carcinoma?

    Answer: AFP

    Explanation: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is the most specific tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, though it can also be elevated in other liver diseases. ---

  24. Q24. A patient with an enlarged prostate and elevated PSA should undergo

    Answer: Prostate biopsy

    Explanation: Elevated PSA with enlarged prostate requires tissue diagnosis via biopsy to rule out prostate cancer. ---

  25. Q25. The presence of high levels of CEA is most suggestive of

    Answer: Colorectal cancer

    Explanation: CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) is most commonly associated with colorectal cancer, though it's not specific. ## Section 6: Acid-Base Disorders & Blood Gases ---

  26. Q26. Which of the following is a primary metabolic alkalosis?

    Answer: Vomiting

    Explanation: Vomiting causes loss of gastric acid (HCl), leading to metabolic alkalosis. COPD causes respiratory acidosis. ---

  27. Q27. A patient with a pH of 7.25, PaCO₂ of 60 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ of 24 mEq/L has

    Answer: Respiratory acidosis

    Explanation: pH <7.35 with elevated PaCO₂ ( 45 mmHg) indicates respiratory acidosis. Normal bicarbonate suggests acute condition. ---

  28. Q28. Which of the following causes a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

    Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

    Explanation: RTA causes normal anion gap acidosis due to impaired renal acid excretion. Other options cause high anion gap acidosis. ---

  29. Q29. A patient with metabolic acidosis and an increased anion gap likely has

    Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

    Explanation: DKA produces ketoacids, causing high anion gap metabolic acidosis. RTA causes normal anion gap acidosis. ---

  30. Q30. Which compensatory response occurs in metabolic acidosis?

    Answer: Increased respiratory rate

    Explanation: Metabolic acidosis triggers hyperventilation to blow off CO₂ and partially compensate for the acidosis. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 1: Electrolytes & Acid-Base Disorders ---

  31. Q31. A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with weakness and palpitations. ECG shows peaked T waves. Lab results: K⁺ 6.5 mmol/L, Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, BUN 55 mg/dL, Creatinine 4.2 mg/dL. What is the next best step?

    Answer: IV calcium gluconate

    Explanation: Severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes (peaked T waves) is a cardiac emergency. IV calcium stabilizes cardiac membrane first. ---

  32. Q32. A 50-year-old woman with severe vomiting for three days presents with muscle cramps and weakness. Lab results: Na⁺ 138 mmol/L, K⁺ 2.8 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 85 mmol/L, HCO₃⁻ 34 mmol/L. What is the acid-base disorder?

    Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

    Explanation: High bicarbonate (34 mmol/L) with hypokalemia and hypochloremia from vomiting indicates metabolic alkalosis. ---

  33. Q33. A 35-year-old diabetic man presents with confusion and deep rapid breathing. Blood gas: pH 7.1, PaCO₂ 22 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 10 mmol/L, glucose 550 mg/dL. What is the primary acid-base disorder?

    Answer: Metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: Low pH (7.1) with low bicarbonate (10) and compensatory hyperventilation (low CO₂) indicates metabolic acidosis from DKA. ---

  34. Q34. A 72-year-old man with COPD presents with confusion. Blood gas: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L. What is the most likely acid-base disorder?

    Answer: Respiratory acidosis

    Explanation: Low pH with high CO₂ indicates respiratory acidosis. Elevated bicarbonate suggests chronic compensation. ---

  35. Q35. A 45-year-old woman with chronic diarrhea presents with weakness. Labs: Na⁺ 138 mmol/L, K⁺ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 105 mmol/L, HCO₃⁻ 15 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: Anion gap = 138 - (105 + 15) = 18 (normal range). Diarrhea causes bicarbonate loss leading to normal anion gap acidosis. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 2: Kidney Function & Renal Pathology ---

  36. Q36. A 55-year-old hypertensive patient presents with swelling and decreased urine output. Labs: BUN 45 mg/dL, Creatinine 3.8 mg/dL, Na⁺ 134 mmol/L, K⁺ 5.2 mmol/L. Urine Na⁺ 500 mOsm/kg. What is the likely cause?

    Answer: Prerenal azotemia

    Explanation: Low urine sodium (<20) and high urine osmolality ( 500) indicate intact tubular function trying to conserve sodium and water. ---

  37. Q37. A 70-year-old diabetic patient presents with chronic kidney disease. Labs: BUN 55 mg/dL, Creatinine 5.5 mg/dL, eGFR 15 mL/min. What stage of CKD is this?

    Answer: Stage 5 Correct

    Explanation: eGFR <15 mL/min indicates Stage 5 CKD (kidney failure), requiring renal replacement therapy consideration. ---

  38. Q38. A patient with nephrotic syndrome has edema and proteinuria 3.5 g/day. What is the most likely biochemical abnormality?

    Answer: Hypoalbuminemia

    Explanation: Massive proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome leads to hypoalbuminemia, causing decreased oncotic pressure and edema. ---

  39. Q39. A patient with acute tubular necrosis (ATN) will have

    Answer: Muddy brown casts

    Explanation: Muddy brown casts are pathognomonic for ATN, indicating tubular epithelial cell sloughing. ---

  40. Q40. A patient with SIADH will most likely have which lab finding?

    Answer: Hyponatremia

    Explanation: SIADH causes excessive water retention, leading to dilutional hyponatremia with concentrated urine. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 3: Endocrine Disorders ---

  41. Q41. A 60-year-old man presents with weight gain, moon facies, and hypertension. Labs: Cortisol remains high after low-dose dexamethasone suppression test. What is the likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Cushing's syndrome

    Explanation: Failure to suppress cortisol with low-dose dexamethasone confirms Cushing's syndrome. Clinical features support this diagnosis. ---

  42. Q42. A 25-year-old woman presents with palpitations, weight loss, and sweating. Labs: TSH <0.1 mIU/L, Free T4 high. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Hyperthyroidism

    Explanation: Suppressed TSH with elevated T4 and classic hyperthyroid symptoms confirms hyperthyroidism. ---

  43. Q43. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, hypotension, and hyperpigmentation. Labs: Na⁺ 129 mmol/L, K⁺ 5.8 mmol/L, Cortisol low. What is the likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Addison's disease

    Explanation: Low cortisol with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hyperpigmentation are classic for primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). ---

  44. Q44. A patient with secondary hyperparathyroidism due to chronic kidney disease will have

    Answer: High PTH

    Explanation: CKD causes phosphate retention and vitamin D deficiency, leading to low/normal calcium and compensatory PTH elevation. ---

  45. Q45. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with hypercalcemia?

    Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

    Explanation: Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in outpatients, followed by malignancy in hospitalized patients. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 4: Diabetes & Glucose Disorders ---

  46. Q46. A 40-year-old man with polyuria and polydipsia has fasting glucose of 150 mg/dL and HbA1c of 8.5%. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Diabetes mellitus

    Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL and HbA1c ≥6.5% both meet criteria for diabetes mellitus diagnosis. ---

  47. Q47. A patient presents with altered mental status and blood glucose of 35 mg/dL. What is the most likely cause?

    Answer: Insulinoma

    Explanation: Severe hypoglycemia (35 mg/dL) with altered mental status suggests insulin excess, most likely from an insulinoma. ---

  48. Q48. A 65-year-old diabetic patient with non-healing ulcers likely has

    Answer: Hyperglycemia-induced vascular damage

    Explanation: Chronic hyperglycemia causes microvascular and macrovascular complications, leading to poor wound healing. ---

  49. Q49. Which test is most useful for long-term diabetes monitoring?

    Answer: HbA1c

    Explanation: HbA1c reflects average glucose over 2-3 months, making it ideal for long-term diabetes monitoring and management. ---

  50. Q50. A diabetic patient with nausea, abdominal pain, and high blood glucose should be evaluated for

    Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

    Explanation: Nausea, abdominal pain with hyperglycemia in a diabetic patient suggests DKA, especially with ketosis and acidosis. ## Chemical Pathology Calculations Section ---

  51. Q51. A 45-year-old man presents with confusion and deep rapid breathing. Blood gas shows: pH 7.15, PaCO₂ 25 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 10 mmol/L, Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 100 mmol/L. What is the anion gap?

    Answer: 15 Correct

    Explanation: Anion gap = Na⁺ - (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) = 140 - (100 + 10) = 30. High anion gap suggests organic acidosis. ---

  52. Q52. A patient with an anion gap of 25 has which likely cause?

    Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

    Explanation: High anion gap ( 12) suggests organic acid accumulation. DKA produces ketoacids causing elevated anion gap. ---

  53. Q53. Which of the following is the most common cause of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

    Answer: Diarrhea Correct

    Explanation: Diarrhea causes bicarbonate loss without organic acid accumulation, resulting in normal anion gap acidosis. ---

  54. Q54. A patient presents with metabolic acidosis. Labs: Na⁺ 138 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 114 mmol/L, HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L. What is the anion gap?

    Answer: 15 Correct

    Explanation: Anion gap = 138 - (114 + 14) = 10. Normal anion gap (8-12) suggests hyperchloremic acidosis. ---

  55. Q55. Which of the following conditions is associated with a high anion gap metabolic acidosis?

    Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning

    Explanation: Ethylene glycol metabolism produces organic acids (oxalic acid), causing high anion gap metabolic acidosis. ## Corrected Calcium & Parathyroid Disorders ---

  56. Q56. A 65-year-old woman with multiple myeloma has total calcium of 7.5 mg/dL and albumin of 2.5 g/dL. What is her corrected calcium level? (Use: Corrected Ca = Measured Ca + 0.8 × (4 - Albumin))

    Answer: 8.2 mg/dL

    Explanation: Corrected Ca = 7.5 + 0.8 × (4 - 2.5) = 7.5 + 1.2 = 8.7 ≈ 8.2 mg/dL. Corrects for low albumin. ---

  57. Q57. A patient with hypercalcemia due to primary hyperparathyroidism will have which lab result?

    Answer: High calcium, high PTH

    Explanation: Primary hyperparathyroidism involves autonomous PTH secretion causing hypercalcemia with inappropriately normal/high PTH. ---

  58. Q58. A patient with hypercalcemia, suppressed PTH, and high vitamin D likely has

    Answer: Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia

    Explanation: Hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH suggests non-parathyroid cause. High vitamin D indicates vitamin D intoxication or granulomatous disease. ---

  59. Q59. A patient with tetany, muscle cramps, and a corrected calcium of 6.5 mg/dL likely has

    Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

    Explanation: Severe hypocalcemia (6.5 mg/dL, normal 8.5-10.5) with neuromuscular symptoms indicates hypoparathyroidism. ---

  60. Q60. In chronic kidney disease, secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs due to

    Answer: High phosphate & low calcium

    Explanation: CKD causes phosphate retention and decreased vitamin D activation, leading to hypocalcemia and compensatory PTH elevation. ## Osmolar Gap & Fluid Disorders ---

  61. Q61. A 50-year-old man presents with altered mental status after alcohol ingestion. Labs: Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, glucose 90 mg/dL, BUN 14 mg/dL, measured serum osmolality 320 mOsm/kg. What is the calculated osmolality? (Use: 2 × Na⁺ + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8))

    Answer: 295

    Explanation: Calculated osmolality = 2(140) + (90/18) + (14/2.8) = 280 + 5 + 5 = 290 ≈ 295 mOsm/kg. ---

  62. Q62. What is the osmolar gap in the previous case? (Osmolar gap = Measured osmolality - Calculated osmolality)

    Answer: 25 Correct

    Explanation: Osmolar gap = 320 - 295 = 25 mOsm/kg. Gap 10 suggests presence of unmeasured osmoles (methanol, ethylene glycol). ---

  63. Q63. A high osmolar gap suggests

    Answer: Methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning

    Explanation: High osmolar gap ( 10) indicates presence of unmeasured osmotically active substances like toxic alcohols. ---

  64. Q64. A patient with severe dehydration will have

    Answer: High urine osmolality

    Explanation: Dehydration triggers ADH release, causing maximal urine concentration ( 800 mOsm/kg) to conserve water. ---

  65. Q65. In SIADH, the expected serum sodium and osmolality are

    Answer: Low Na⁺, low osmolality

    Explanation: SIADH causes excessive water retention, diluting both sodium and overall serum osmolality. ## Glucose & Diabetes Calculations ---

  66. Q66. A patient has a fasting glucose of 130 mg/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Diabetes mellitus

    Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL meets criteria for diabetes mellitus. 130 mg/dL exceeds this threshold. ---

  67. Q67. A diabetic patient's HbA1c is 10%. What is the estimated average glucose? (Use: eAG = (HbA1c × 28.7) - 46.7)

    Answer: 240 mg/dL

    Explanation: eAG = (10 × 28.7) - 46.7 = 287 - 46.7 = 240.3 ≈ 240 mg/dL. Very poor glycemic control. ---

  68. Q68. Which test is best for long-term glucose monitoring in diabetes?

    Answer: HbA1c

    Explanation: HbA1c reflects 2-3 month average glucose levels, providing the best assessment of long-term glycemic control. ---

  69. Q69. A patient with diabetes presents with nausea, high glucose, and pH 7.1. What is the likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

    Explanation: Acidosis (pH 7.1) with hyperglycemia and GI symptoms indicates DKA. HHS typically lacks acidosis. ---

  70. Q70. Which of the following is a characteristic of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) but NOT diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

    Answer: Profound dehydration

    Explanation: HHS has more severe dehydration due to gradual onset, while DKA has acidosis and ketosis that HHS lacks. ## Lipid Profile & Cardiovascular Risk ---

  71. Q71. A patient with LDL of 180 mg/dL and HDL of 35 mg/dL is at risk for

    Answer: Atherosclerosis

    Explanation: High LDL ( 160) and low HDL (<40 men, <50 women) significantly increase cardiovascular disease risk. ---

  72. Q72. Which lipid is most closely associated with pancreatitis?

    Answer: Triglycerides

    Explanation: Severe hypertriglyceridemia ( 1000 mg/dL) can cause acute pancreatitis through pancreatic lipase activation. ---

  73. Q73. A patient with a total cholesterol of 240 mg/dL has

    Answer: Hypercholesterolemia

    Explanation: Total cholesterol 200 mg/dL is considered elevated; 240 mg/dL represents significant hypercholesterolemia. ---

  74. Q74. A patient with low HDL and high triglycerides likely has

    Answer: Metabolic syndrome

    Explanation: Low HDL (<40/50) and high triglycerides ( 150) are key components of metabolic syndrome. ---

  75. Q75. The most effective therapy for lowering LDL is

    Answer: Statins

    Explanation: Statins are first-line therapy for LDL reduction, typically lowering LDL by 30-50% through HMG-CoA reductase inhibition. ## Acid-Base Disorders & Acidosis ---

  76. Q76. A 60-year-old diabetic presents with confusion, Kussmaul breathing, and fruity breath odor. Blood gas: pH 7.15, PaCO₂ 22 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 10 mmol/L. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

    Explanation: Classic DKA presentation: acidosis (pH 7.15), compensatory hyperventilation (low CO₂), ketotic breath, and altered mental status. ---

  77. Q77. A patient with chronic diarrhea has a pH of 7.25, PaCO₂ 38 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 17 mmol/L. What is the acid-base disturbance?

    Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: Diarrhea causes bicarbonate loss without organic acid accumulation, resulting in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. ---

  78. Q78. A 70-year-old COPD patient presents with confusion. Blood gas: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 32 mmol/L. What is the acid-base disorder?

    Answer: Respiratory acidosis

    Explanation: Low pH with high CO₂ indicates respiratory acidosis. Elevated bicarbonate shows chronic renal compensation. ---

  79. Q79. A patient with septic shock has lactic acid of 7.0 mmol/L. What is the most likely acid-base disorder?

    Answer: High anion gap metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: Lactic acidosis produces organic acids, causing high anion gap metabolic acidosis in shock states. ---

  80. Q80. A young patient with aspirin overdose has the following blood gas: pH 7.45, PaCO₂ 24 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Mixed respiratory alkalosis & metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: Salicylates cause both direct respiratory stimulation (alkalosis) and metabolic acidosis, creating a mixed disorder. ## Cardiovascular Pathology & Biomarkers ---

  81. Q81. A patient with substernal chest pain and ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF likely has

    Answer: Inferior MI

    Explanation: ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates inferior wall MI, typically involving the right coronary artery. ---

  82. Q82. Which of the following is the most specific marker for myocardial infarction?

    Answer: Troponin I

    Explanation: Troponin I is highly specific for cardiac muscle and remains elevated longer than other markers, making it gold standard for MI diagnosis. ---

  83. Q83. A 65-year-old diabetic man with chest pain has normal ECG but elevated troponin. What is the likely diagnosis?

    Answer: NSTEMI

    Explanation: Elevated troponin with normal ECG indicates non-ST elevation MI (NSTEMI), common in diabetic patients with atypical presentations.

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