83 clinical MCQs in Endocrine and Metabolic Pathology. Which of the following is NOT measured in a basic metabolic panel (BMP)?. Kenya, Africa and globa...
Q1. Which of the following is NOT measured in a basic metabolic panel (BMP)?
Answer: Bilirubin
Explanation: A BMP typically includes glucose, electrolytes (Na+, K+, Cl-, CO2), BUN, and creatinine. Bilirubin is part of liver function tests, not the BMP. ---
Q2. Which test is the most specific for liver function?
Answer: ALT
Explanation: ALT (Alanine aminotransferase) is more specific for hepatocellular injury as it's primarily found in the liver, while AST is found in multiple organs including heart and muscle. ---
Q3. Which electrolyte is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid?
Answer: Sodium
Explanation: Sodium (Na+) is the predominant cation in extracellular fluid (normal: 135-145 mEq/L), while potassium is the main intracellular cation. ---
Q4. An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis can be caused by
Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation: Lactic acidosis causes increased anion gap metabolic acidosis due to organic acid accumulation. Diarrhea and RTA typically cause normal anion gap acidosis. ---
Q5. Which analyte is most useful in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
Answer: Serum protein electrophoresis
Explanation: SPEP detects monoclonal proteins (M-proteins) characteristic of multiple myeloma, showing abnormal immunoglobulin bands. ## Section 2: Endocrine Disorders & Hormone Assays ---
Q6. Which of the following is an adrenal hormone?
Answer: Prolactin
Explanation: Cortisol is produced by the adrenal cortex. T3 is thyroid hormone, prolactin is pituitary hormone, and ADH is produced by the hypothalamus. ---
Q7. In primary hypothyroidism, TSH levels are typically
Answer: High
Explanation: Primary hypothyroidism involves thyroid gland failure, so TSH is elevated due to loss of negative feedback from low thyroid hormones. ---
Q8. Which hormone is most useful for diagnosing acromegaly?
Answer: IGF-1
Explanation: IGF-1 is more stable than GH and better reflects long-term GH secretion, making it the preferred screening test for acromegaly. ---
Q9. Which test is used to confirm Cushing's syndrome?
Answer: Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
Explanation: This test differentiates normal individuals (who suppress cortisol) from those with Cushing's syndrome (who fail to suppress). ---
Q10. Which enzyme deficiency is most common in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Answer: 21-hydroxylase
Explanation: 21-hydroxylase deficiency accounts for ~95% of CAH cases, leading to cortisol deficiency and androgen excess. ## Section 3: Kidney Function & Electrolytes ---
Q11. The best marker for glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is
Answer: Serum cystatin C Correct
Explanation: Cystatin C is less affected by muscle mass, age, and diet compared to creatinine, providing a more accurate GFR assessment. ---
Q12. A low fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) suggests
Answer: Prerenal azotemia
Explanation: FENa <1% indicates intact tubular function with appropriate sodium retention, typical of prerenal causes of AKI. ---
Q13. Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with ECG changes such as peaked T waves?
Answer: Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Hyperkalemia causes characteristic ECG changes: peaked T waves, widened QRS, and can progress to sine waves and cardiac arrest. ---
Q14. Which acid-base disorder is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease?
Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation: CKD causes metabolic acidosis due to decreased acid excretion, reduced ammonia production, and bicarbonate loss. ---
Q15. Which of the following conditions leads to an increased BUN-to-creatinine ratio?
Answer: Prerenal azotemia
Explanation: Prerenal azotemia increases BUN more than creatinine due to enhanced urea reabsorption, raising the BUN:Cr ratio 20:1. ## Section 4: Liver Function & Lipid Metabolism ---
Q16. Which liver enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury?
Answer: ALT
Explanation: ALT is predominantly found in hepatocytes, making it more specific for liver injury than AST, which is also found in cardiac and skeletal muscle. ---
Q17. Which of the following is the best marker of cholestasis?
Answer: ALP
Explanation: Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in cholestatic conditions due to increased synthesis and release from bile duct epithelium. ---
Q18. Which lipoprotein is primarily responsible for transporting cholesterol to tissues?
Answer: LDL
Explanation: LDL carries cholesterol from liver to peripheral tissues and is the major atherogenic lipoprotein. ---
Q19. Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by a defect in which receptor?
Answer: LDL receptor
Explanation: FH is caused by mutations in the LDL receptor gene, leading to impaired cholesterol uptake and very high LDL levels. ---
Q20. A fasting glucose level of 8.0 mmol/L (144 mg/dL) suggests
Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) indicates diabetes mellitus. 144 mg/dL clearly meets this criterion. ## Section 5: Tumor Markers & Cancer Screening ---
Q21. Which tumor marker is most commonly used for ovarian cancer screening?
Answer: CA 125
Explanation: CA 125 is the most widely used tumor marker for ovarian cancer, though it's not specific and can be elevated in benign conditions. ---
Q22. A patient with suspected pancreatic cancer is likely to have elevated levels of
Answer: CA 19-9
Explanation: CA 19-9 is the most useful tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma, though it's also elevated in biliary obstruction. ---
Q23. Which tumor marker is most specific for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Answer: AFP
Explanation: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is the most specific tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, though it can also be elevated in other liver diseases. ---
Q24. A patient with an enlarged prostate and elevated PSA should undergo
Answer: Prostate biopsy
Explanation: Elevated PSA with enlarged prostate requires tissue diagnosis via biopsy to rule out prostate cancer. ---
Q25. The presence of high levels of CEA is most suggestive of
Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation: CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) is most commonly associated with colorectal cancer, though it's not specific. ## Section 6: Acid-Base Disorders & Blood Gases ---
Q26. Which of the following is a primary metabolic alkalosis?
Answer: Vomiting
Explanation: Vomiting causes loss of gastric acid (HCl), leading to metabolic alkalosis. COPD causes respiratory acidosis. ---
Q27. A patient with a pH of 7.25, PaCO₂ of 60 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ of 24 mEq/L has
Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation: pH <7.35 with elevated PaCO₂ ( 45 mmHg) indicates respiratory acidosis. Normal bicarbonate suggests acute condition. ---
Q28. Which of the following causes a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?
Answer: Renal tubular acidosis
Explanation: RTA causes normal anion gap acidosis due to impaired renal acid excretion. Other options cause high anion gap acidosis. ---
Q29. A patient with metabolic acidosis and an increased anion gap likely has
Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation: DKA produces ketoacids, causing high anion gap metabolic acidosis. RTA causes normal anion gap acidosis. ---
Q30. Which compensatory response occurs in metabolic acidosis?
Answer: Increased respiratory rate
Explanation: Metabolic acidosis triggers hyperventilation to blow off CO₂ and partially compensate for the acidosis. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 1: Electrolytes & Acid-Base Disorders ---
Q31. A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with weakness and palpitations. ECG shows peaked T waves. Lab results: K⁺ 6.5 mmol/L, Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, BUN 55 mg/dL, Creatinine 4.2 mg/dL. What is the next best step?
Answer: IV calcium gluconate
Explanation: Severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes (peaked T waves) is a cardiac emergency. IV calcium stabilizes cardiac membrane first. ---
Q32. A 50-year-old woman with severe vomiting for three days presents with muscle cramps and weakness. Lab results: Na⁺ 138 mmol/L, K⁺ 2.8 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 85 mmol/L, HCO₃⁻ 34 mmol/L. What is the acid-base disorder?
Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation: High bicarbonate (34 mmol/L) with hypokalemia and hypochloremia from vomiting indicates metabolic alkalosis. ---
Q33. A 35-year-old diabetic man presents with confusion and deep rapid breathing. Blood gas: pH 7.1, PaCO₂ 22 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 10 mmol/L, glucose 550 mg/dL. What is the primary acid-base disorder?
Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Low pH (7.1) with low bicarbonate (10) and compensatory hyperventilation (low CO₂) indicates metabolic acidosis from DKA. ---
Q34. A 72-year-old man with COPD presents with confusion. Blood gas: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L. What is the most likely acid-base disorder?
Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation: Low pH with high CO₂ indicates respiratory acidosis. Elevated bicarbonate suggests chronic compensation. ---
Q35. A 45-year-old woman with chronic diarrhea presents with weakness. Labs: Na⁺ 138 mmol/L, K⁺ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 105 mmol/L, HCO₃⁻ 15 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Anion gap = 138 - (105 + 15) = 18 (normal range). Diarrhea causes bicarbonate loss leading to normal anion gap acidosis. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 2: Kidney Function & Renal Pathology ---
Q36. A 55-year-old hypertensive patient presents with swelling and decreased urine output. Labs: BUN 45 mg/dL, Creatinine 3.8 mg/dL, Na⁺ 134 mmol/L, K⁺ 5.2 mmol/L. Urine Na⁺ 500 mOsm/kg. What is the likely cause?
Answer: Prerenal azotemia
Explanation: Low urine sodium (<20) and high urine osmolality ( 500) indicate intact tubular function trying to conserve sodium and water. ---
Q37. A 70-year-old diabetic patient presents with chronic kidney disease. Labs: BUN 55 mg/dL, Creatinine 5.5 mg/dL, eGFR 15 mL/min. What stage of CKD is this?
Answer: Stage 5 Correct
Explanation: eGFR <15 mL/min indicates Stage 5 CKD (kidney failure), requiring renal replacement therapy consideration. ---
Q38. A patient with nephrotic syndrome has edema and proteinuria 3.5 g/day. What is the most likely biochemical abnormality?
Answer: Hypoalbuminemia
Explanation: Massive proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome leads to hypoalbuminemia, causing decreased oncotic pressure and edema. ---
Q39. A patient with acute tubular necrosis (ATN) will have
Answer: Muddy brown casts
Explanation: Muddy brown casts are pathognomonic for ATN, indicating tubular epithelial cell sloughing. ---
Q40. A patient with SIADH will most likely have which lab finding?
Answer: Hyponatremia
Explanation: SIADH causes excessive water retention, leading to dilutional hyponatremia with concentrated urine. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 3: Endocrine Disorders ---
Q41. A 60-year-old man presents with weight gain, moon facies, and hypertension. Labs: Cortisol remains high after low-dose dexamethasone suppression test. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation: Failure to suppress cortisol with low-dose dexamethasone confirms Cushing's syndrome. Clinical features support this diagnosis. ---
Q42. A 25-year-old woman presents with palpitations, weight loss, and sweating. Labs: TSH <0.1 mIU/L, Free T4 high. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: Suppressed TSH with elevated T4 and classic hyperthyroid symptoms confirms hyperthyroidism. ---
Q43. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, hypotension, and hyperpigmentation. Labs: Na⁺ 129 mmol/L, K⁺ 5.8 mmol/L, Cortisol low. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation: Low cortisol with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hyperpigmentation are classic for primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). ---
Q44. A patient with secondary hyperparathyroidism due to chronic kidney disease will have
Answer: High PTH
Explanation: CKD causes phosphate retention and vitamin D deficiency, leading to low/normal calcium and compensatory PTH elevation. ---
Q45. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with hypercalcemia?
Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation: Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in outpatients, followed by malignancy in hospitalized patients. ## Case-Based MCQs Section 4: Diabetes & Glucose Disorders ---
Q46. A 40-year-old man with polyuria and polydipsia has fasting glucose of 150 mg/dL and HbA1c of 8.5%. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL and HbA1c ≥6.5% both meet criteria for diabetes mellitus diagnosis. ---
Q47. A patient presents with altered mental status and blood glucose of 35 mg/dL. What is the most likely cause?
Answer: Insulinoma
Explanation: Severe hypoglycemia (35 mg/dL) with altered mental status suggests insulin excess, most likely from an insulinoma. ---
Q48. A 65-year-old diabetic patient with non-healing ulcers likely has
Answer: Hyperglycemia-induced vascular damage
Explanation: Chronic hyperglycemia causes microvascular and macrovascular complications, leading to poor wound healing. ---
Q49. Which test is most useful for long-term diabetes monitoring?
Answer: HbA1c
Explanation: HbA1c reflects average glucose over 2-3 months, making it ideal for long-term diabetes monitoring and management. ---
Q50. A diabetic patient with nausea, abdominal pain, and high blood glucose should be evaluated for
Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation: Nausea, abdominal pain with hyperglycemia in a diabetic patient suggests DKA, especially with ketosis and acidosis. ## Chemical Pathology Calculations Section ---
Q51. A 45-year-old man presents with confusion and deep rapid breathing. Blood gas shows: pH 7.15, PaCO₂ 25 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 10 mmol/L, Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 100 mmol/L. What is the anion gap?
Answer: 15 Correct
Explanation: Anion gap = Na⁺ - (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) = 140 - (100 + 10) = 30. High anion gap suggests organic acidosis. ---
Q52. A patient with an anion gap of 25 has which likely cause?
Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation: High anion gap ( 12) suggests organic acid accumulation. DKA produces ketoacids causing elevated anion gap. ---
Q53. Which of the following is the most common cause of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?
Answer: Diarrhea Correct
Explanation: Diarrhea causes bicarbonate loss without organic acid accumulation, resulting in normal anion gap acidosis. ---
Q54. A patient presents with metabolic acidosis. Labs: Na⁺ 138 mmol/L, Cl⁻ 114 mmol/L, HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L. What is the anion gap?
Answer: 15 Correct
Explanation: Anion gap = 138 - (114 + 14) = 10. Normal anion gap (8-12) suggests hyperchloremic acidosis. ---
Q55. Which of the following conditions is associated with a high anion gap metabolic acidosis?
Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning
Explanation: Ethylene glycol metabolism produces organic acids (oxalic acid), causing high anion gap metabolic acidosis. ## Corrected Calcium & Parathyroid Disorders ---
Q56. A 65-year-old woman with multiple myeloma has total calcium of 7.5 mg/dL and albumin of 2.5 g/dL. What is her corrected calcium level? (Use: Corrected Ca = Measured Ca + 0.8 × (4 - Albumin))
Answer: 8.2 mg/dL
Explanation: Corrected Ca = 7.5 + 0.8 × (4 - 2.5) = 7.5 + 1.2 = 8.7 ≈ 8.2 mg/dL. Corrects for low albumin. ---
Q57. A patient with hypercalcemia due to primary hyperparathyroidism will have which lab result?
Answer: High calcium, high PTH
Explanation: Primary hyperparathyroidism involves autonomous PTH secretion causing hypercalcemia with inappropriately normal/high PTH. ---
Q58. A patient with hypercalcemia, suppressed PTH, and high vitamin D likely has
Answer: Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia
Explanation: Hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH suggests non-parathyroid cause. High vitamin D indicates vitamin D intoxication or granulomatous disease. ---
Q59. A patient with tetany, muscle cramps, and a corrected calcium of 6.5 mg/dL likely has
Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation: Severe hypocalcemia (6.5 mg/dL, normal 8.5-10.5) with neuromuscular symptoms indicates hypoparathyroidism. ---
Q60. In chronic kidney disease, secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs due to
Answer: High phosphate & low calcium
Explanation: CKD causes phosphate retention and decreased vitamin D activation, leading to hypocalcemia and compensatory PTH elevation. ## Osmolar Gap & Fluid Disorders ---
Q61. A 50-year-old man presents with altered mental status after alcohol ingestion. Labs: Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, glucose 90 mg/dL, BUN 14 mg/dL, measured serum osmolality 320 mOsm/kg. What is the calculated osmolality? (Use: 2 × Na⁺ + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8))
Answer: 295
Explanation: Calculated osmolality = 2(140) + (90/18) + (14/2.8) = 280 + 5 + 5 = 290 ≈ 295 mOsm/kg. ---
Q62. What is the osmolar gap in the previous case? (Osmolar gap = Measured osmolality - Calculated osmolality)
Answer: 25 Correct
Explanation: Osmolar gap = 320 - 295 = 25 mOsm/kg. Gap 10 suggests presence of unmeasured osmoles (methanol, ethylene glycol). ---
Q63. A high osmolar gap suggests
Answer: Methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning
Explanation: High osmolar gap ( 10) indicates presence of unmeasured osmotically active substances like toxic alcohols. ---
Q64. A patient with severe dehydration will have
Answer: High urine osmolality
Explanation: Dehydration triggers ADH release, causing maximal urine concentration ( 800 mOsm/kg) to conserve water. ---
Q65. In SIADH, the expected serum sodium and osmolality are
Answer: Low Na⁺, low osmolality
Explanation: SIADH causes excessive water retention, diluting both sodium and overall serum osmolality. ## Glucose & Diabetes Calculations ---
Q66. A patient has a fasting glucose of 130 mg/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL meets criteria for diabetes mellitus. 130 mg/dL exceeds this threshold. ---
Q67. A diabetic patient's HbA1c is 10%. What is the estimated average glucose? (Use: eAG = (HbA1c × 28.7) - 46.7)
Answer: 240 mg/dL
Explanation: eAG = (10 × 28.7) - 46.7 = 287 - 46.7 = 240.3 ≈ 240 mg/dL. Very poor glycemic control. ---
Q68. Which test is best for long-term glucose monitoring in diabetes?
Answer: HbA1c
Explanation: HbA1c reflects 2-3 month average glucose levels, providing the best assessment of long-term glycemic control. ---
Q69. A patient with diabetes presents with nausea, high glucose, and pH 7.1. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation: Acidosis (pH 7.1) with hyperglycemia and GI symptoms indicates DKA. HHS typically lacks acidosis. ---
Q70. Which of the following is a characteristic of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) but NOT diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Answer: Profound dehydration
Explanation: HHS has more severe dehydration due to gradual onset, while DKA has acidosis and ketosis that HHS lacks. ## Lipid Profile & Cardiovascular Risk ---
Q71. A patient with LDL of 180 mg/dL and HDL of 35 mg/dL is at risk for
Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation: High LDL ( 160) and low HDL (<40 men, <50 women) significantly increase cardiovascular disease risk. ---
Q72. Which lipid is most closely associated with pancreatitis?
Answer: Triglycerides
Explanation: Severe hypertriglyceridemia ( 1000 mg/dL) can cause acute pancreatitis through pancreatic lipase activation. ---
Q73. A patient with a total cholesterol of 240 mg/dL has
Answer: Hypercholesterolemia
Explanation: Total cholesterol 200 mg/dL is considered elevated; 240 mg/dL represents significant hypercholesterolemia. ---
Q74. A patient with low HDL and high triglycerides likely has
Answer: Metabolic syndrome
Explanation: Low HDL (<40/50) and high triglycerides ( 150) are key components of metabolic syndrome. ---
Q75. The most effective therapy for lowering LDL is
Answer: Statins
Explanation: Statins are first-line therapy for LDL reduction, typically lowering LDL by 30-50% through HMG-CoA reductase inhibition. ## Acid-Base Disorders & Acidosis ---
Q76. A 60-year-old diabetic presents with confusion, Kussmaul breathing, and fruity breath odor. Blood gas: pH 7.15, PaCO₂ 22 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 10 mmol/L. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation: Classic DKA presentation: acidosis (pH 7.15), compensatory hyperventilation (low CO₂), ketotic breath, and altered mental status. ---
Q77. A patient with chronic diarrhea has a pH of 7.25, PaCO₂ 38 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 17 mmol/L. What is the acid-base disturbance?
Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Diarrhea causes bicarbonate loss without organic acid accumulation, resulting in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. ---
Q78. A 70-year-old COPD patient presents with confusion. Blood gas: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 32 mmol/L. What is the acid-base disorder?
Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation: Low pH with high CO₂ indicates respiratory acidosis. Elevated bicarbonate shows chronic renal compensation. ---
Q79. A patient with septic shock has lactic acid of 7.0 mmol/L. What is the most likely acid-base disorder?
Answer: High anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Lactic acidosis produces organic acids, causing high anion gap metabolic acidosis in shock states. ---
Q80. A young patient with aspirin overdose has the following blood gas: pH 7.45, PaCO₂ 24 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer: Mixed respiratory alkalosis & metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Salicylates cause both direct respiratory stimulation (alkalosis) and metabolic acidosis, creating a mixed disorder. ## Cardiovascular Pathology & Biomarkers ---
Q81. A patient with substernal chest pain and ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF likely has
Answer: Inferior MI
Explanation: ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates inferior wall MI, typically involving the right coronary artery. ---
Q82. Which of the following is the most specific marker for myocardial infarction?
Answer: Troponin I
Explanation: Troponin I is highly specific for cardiac muscle and remains elevated longer than other markers, making it gold standard for MI diagnosis. ---
Q83. A 65-year-old diabetic man with chest pain has normal ECG but elevated troponin. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer: NSTEMI
Explanation: Elevated troponin with normal ECG indicates non-ST elevation MI (NSTEMI), common in diabetic patients with atypical presentations.