Complex Multigenic and Cytogenetic Disorders MCQs

47 clinical MCQs in General Pathology. What is the minimum population frequency required for a genetic variant to be classified a

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. What is the minimum population frequency required for a genetic variant to be classified as a polymorphism?

    Answer: 10%

    Explanation: A polymorphism is defined as a genetic variant that has at least two alleles and occurs in at least 1% of the population.

  2. Q2. In complex multigenic disorders, what percentage of type 1 diabetes risk is contributed by a few HLA alleles?

    Answer: More than 50%

    Explanation: Of the 20 to 30 genes implicated in type 1 diabetes, a few HLA alleles contribute more than 50% of the risk.

  3. Q3. Which environmental factor is most commonly associated with unmasking the genetic trait in type 2 diabetes mellitus?

    Answer: Obesity

    Explanation: Type 2 diabetes often first manifests clinically after weight gain, demonstrating how obesity as an environmental factor unmasks the genetic trait.

  4. Q4. What proportion of newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality?

    Answer: 1 in 200

    Explanation: It is estimated that approximately 1 in 200 newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality.

  5. Q5. What percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: 50%

    Explanation: Approximately 50% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

  6. Q6. Which staining technique is widely used to produce distinctive banding patterns on chromosomes?

    Answer: Giemsa stain (G banding)

    Explanation: The Giemsa stain (G banding) technique produces a distinctive pattern of alternating light and dark bands allowing identification of each chromosome.

  7. Q7. A chromosome number of 3n is classified as:

    Answer: Polyploid

    Explanation: Any exact multiple of the haploid number (n) is called euploid; numbers such as 3n and 4n are specifically called polyploid.

  8. Q8. What is the primary cause of aneuploidy?

    Answer: Nondisjunction during meiosis

    Explanation: The chief cause of aneuploidy is nondisjunction of a homologous pair of chromosomes at the first meiotic division or failure of sister chromatids to separate during the second meiotic division.

  9. Q9. What is the chromosome count in a trisomic zygote?

    Answer: 2n – 1

    Explanation: When a gamete with an extra chromosome (n + 1) is fertilized by a normal gamete (n), the resulting zygote is trisomic (2n + 1).

  10. Q10. Which type of chromosomal abnormality is better tolerated: autosomal or sex chromosomal?

    Answer: Sex chromosome imbalances

    Explanation: Imbalances of sex chromosomes are tolerated much better than similar imbalances of autosomes. ### SECTION B: CHROMOSOMAL TERMINOLOGY & NOTATION

  11. Q11. What does mosaicism refer to in cytogenetics?

    Answer: Presence of two or more cell populations with different chromosome complements

    Explanation: Mosaicism is the presence of two or more populations of cells with different complements of chromosomes in the same individual.

  12. Q12. In cytogenetic notation, what does "p" represent?

    Answer: Short arm (petit)

    Explanation: "p" (French, petit) denotes the short arm of a chromosome; "q" denotes the long arm.

  13. Q13. What does the notation 46,XX,t(2;5)(q31;p14) indicate?

    Answer: Reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 2 and 5

    Explanation: This notation indicates a reciprocal translocation involving the long arm of chromosome 2 and the short arm of chromosome 5.

  14. Q14. What is a Robertsonian translocation?

    Answer: Translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes

    Explanation: Robertsonian translocation is a reciprocal translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes involving the short arm of one and long arm of the other.

  15. Q15. What is the most common isochromosome found in live births?

    Answer: i(Xq)

    Explanation: The most common isochromosome in live births involves the long arm of the X chromosome, designated i(Xq).

  16. Q16. How does an isochromosome form?

    Answer: Horizontal division of centromere

    Explanation: Isochromosomes result when the centromere divides horizontally rather than vertically, leading to loss of one arm and duplication of the other. ### SECTION C: DOWN SYNDROME (TRISOMY 21)

  17. Q17. What percentage of Down syndrome cases are caused by trisomy 21?

    Answer: 95%

    Explanation: About 95% of affected persons with Down syndrome have trisomy 21 (chromosome count of 47).

  18. Q18. What is the maternal age-related incidence of Down syndrome in women older than 45 years?

    Answer: 1 in 25

    Explanation: Incidence increases dramatically to 1 in 25 live births in women older than 45 years.

  19. Q19. In what percentage of Down syndrome cases is the extra chromosome of maternal origin?

    Answer: 95%

    Explanation: In 95% of cases, the extra chromosome is of maternal origin, indicating meiotic nondisjunction primarily in the ovum.

  20. Q20. What percentage of Down syndrome cases result from translocation?

    Answer: 15%

    Explanation: In about 4% of patients, the extra chromosomal material is present as a translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21 to chromosome 22 or 14.

  21. Q21. What percentage of Down syndrome patients are mosaics?

    Answer: 10%

    Explanation: Approximately 1% of patients are mosaics, having a mixture of 46- and 47-chromosome cells.

  22. Q22. What percentage of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease?

    Answer: 40%

    Explanation: Approximately 40% of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease, most commonly endocardial cushion defects.

  23. Q23. What is the increased risk of acute leukemia in children with Down syndrome?

    Answer: 10- to 20-fold

    Explanation: Children with trisomy 21 have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute leukemia.

  24. Q24. At what age do virtually all Down syndrome patients develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease?

    Answer: Over age 40

    Explanation: Virtually all patients with trisomy 21 older than age 40 develop Alzheimer-like neuropathologic changes.

  25. Q25. What is the current median age at death for persons with Down syndrome?

    Answer: 47 years

    Explanation: Improved medical care has increased longevity, with the current median age at death being 47 years.

  26. Q26. Which immune cell function is primarily affected in Down syndrome patients?

    Answer: T cell functions

    Explanation: Patients demonstrate abnormal immune responses affecting mainly T cell functions, predisposing them to infections.

  27. Q27. What is the typical IQ range for approximately 80% of individuals with Down syndrome?

    Answer: 25 to 50

    Explanation: Approximately 80% of those afflicted have an IQ of 25 to 50. ### SECTION D: OTHER AUTOSOMAL DISORDERS

  28. Q28. Which deletion syndrome results from partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5?

    Answer: Cri du chat syndrome

    Explanation: Cri du chat syndrome results from partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 (5p-).

  29. Q29. What is the chromosomal abnormality in Patau syndrome?

    Answer: Trisomy 13

    Explanation: Patau syndrome is caused by trisomy 13.

  30. Q30. What is the chromosomal abnormality in Edwards syndrome?

    Answer: Trisomy 18

    Explanation: Edwards syndrome is caused by trisomy 18. ### SECTION E: 22q11.2 DELETION SYNDROME

  31. Q31. Which chromosome is involved in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?

    Answer: Chromosome 22

    Explanation: The syndrome results from a small interstitial deletion on the long arm of chromosome 22.

  32. Q32. Which two previously separate syndromes are now known to be caused by 22q11.2 deletion?

    Answer: DiGeorge and velocardiofacial syndromes

    Explanation: DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome are both caused by 22q11.2 deletion.

  33. Q33. Which transcription factor gene is suspected to be responsible for 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?

    Answer: TBX1

    Explanation: The transcription factor gene TBX1 is suspected to be responsible for the clinical features.

  34. Q34. What diagnostic technique is used to establish the diagnosis of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?

    Answer: Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

    Explanation: Diagnosis is established by detecting the deletion using FISH.

  35. Q35. Which type of immunity is impaired in DiGeorge syndrome?

    Answer: T cell immunity

    Explanation: DiGeorge syndrome features thymic hypoplasia with impaired T cell immunity.

  36. Q36. What metabolic abnormality is commonly seen in DiGeorge syndrome due to parathyroid hypoplasia?

    Answer: Hypocalcemia

    Explanation: Parathyroid hypoplasia results in hypocalcemia. ### SECTION F: COMPLEX INHERITANCE & GENETIC CONCEPTS

  37. Q37. According to the common disease-common variant hypothesis, complex multigenic disorders occur when:

    Answer: Many polymorphisms with modest effects are co-inherited

    Explanation: Complex disorders occur when many polymorphisms, each with a modest effect, are co-inherited.

  38. Q38. How many genes are most important among the 20 to 30 genes implicated in type 1 diabetes?

    Answer: 6 to 7

    Explanation: Of the 20 to 30 genes implicated, 6 or 7 are considered most important.

  39. Q39. What does QTL stand for in genetics?

    Answer: Quantitative trait loci

    Explanation: Quantitative trait loci (QTLs) govern multigenic inheritance showing continuous variation (e.g., height).

  40. Q40. In general, which produces more severe defects?

    Answer: Loss of chromosomal material

    Explanation: Loss of chromosomal material (deletion, monosomy) generally produces more severe defects than gain (trisomy).

  41. Q41. What is the outcome of polyploidy in most cases?

    Answer: Spontaneous abortion

    Explanation: Polyploidy (3n, 4n) generally results in spontaneous abortion.

  42. Q42. Which type of mosaicism is more common?

    Answer: Sex chromosome mosaicism

    Explanation: Mosaicism affecting sex chromosomes is common; autosomal mosaicism is rare.

  43. Q43. What is the result of anaphase lag during cell division?

    Answer: Aneuploidy

    Explanation: Anaphase lag (failure of pairing followed by random assortment) leads to aneuploidy.

  44. Q44. Why is monosomy involving an autosome incompatible with life?

    Answer: Loss of essential genetic material

    Explanation: Autosomal monosomy is incompatible with life due to the loss of essential genetic material. ### SECTION G: STRUCTURAL CHROMOSOMAL ABNORMALITIES

  45. Q45. What type of chromosome rearrangement results in formation of one abnormally large chromosome and one extremely small one in Robertsonian translocation?

    Answer: Transfer of segments between acrocentric chromosomes

    Explanation: Transfer of segments between acrocentric chromosomes leads to one large chromosome and one small one (usually lost).

  46. Q46. What happens to the isolated fragment lacking a centromere after deletion?

    Answer: It almost never survives

    Explanation: Fragments lacking a centromere almost never survive during cell division.

  47. Q47. What type of structural abnormality is a ring chromosome considered to be?

    Answer: Variant of deletion

    Explanation: A ring chromosome is a variant of a deletion where both ends of a chromosome are lost and the remaining ends fuse.

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