Principles of Medical Microbiology and Parasitology MCQs – 34 MCQs | Kenya MBChB

34 Year 2: Parasitology exam questions on Principles of Medical Microbiology and Parasitology MCQs for medical students. Includes MCQs, answers, explanations an

This MCQ set contains 34 questions on Principles of Medical Microbiology and Parasitology MCQs in the Year 2: Parasitology unit. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation for active recall and exam preparation.

Q1: Which one is associated with nocturnal pruritis ani?

  1. A. Ancylostoma brazilense
  2. B. Necator americanus
  3. C. Ascaris lumbricoides
  4. D. Enterobium vermicularis
  5. E. Diphyllobothrium latum

Correct answer: D – Enterobium vermicularis

Q2: Which of the following genera is a haemoflagellate?

  1. A. Leishmania
  2. B. Entamoeba
  3. C. Toxoplasma
  4. D. Ascaris
  5. E. Cercariae

Correct answer: A – Leishmania

Q3: Which of the following is a water-borne pathogen?

  1. A. Rotavirus
  2. B. Trichuris species
  3. C. Loa loa
  4. D. Onchocerca volvulus
  5. E. Cercariae

Correct answer: A – Rotavirus

Q4: Which of the following is used in the management of PCP?

  1. A. Cotrimoxazole
  2. B. Clotrimazole
  3. C. Albendazole
  4. D. Benzimidazole
  5. E. All the above

Correct answer: A – Cotrimoxazole

Q5: Which of the following is used for stage I East African sleeping sickness?

  1. A. Suramin
  2. B. Melarsoprol
  3. C. Eflornithine
  4. D. Pentamidine
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: D – Pentamidine

Q6: Which of the following is BEST used for treatment of amoebiasis?

  1. A. Metronidazole
  2. B. Mebendazole
  3. C. Nitazoxanide
  4. D. Fluconazole
  5. E. Suramin

Correct answer: A – Metronidazole

Q7: National Institute of Health (NIH) tape technique is used for diagnosis of?

  1. A. Ancylostoma braziliense
  2. B. Enterobium vermicularis
  3. C. Strongyloides stercoralis
  4. D. Toxocara canis
  5. E. Diphyllobothrium latum

Correct answer: B – Enterobium vermicularis

Q8: Which parasite can cause erosion of bones?

  1. A. Ascaris lumbricoides
  2. B. Echinococcus granulosus
  3. C. Gnathostoma spinigerum
  4. D. Taenia multiceps
  5. E. All of the above

Correct answer: C – Gnathostoma spinigerum

Q9: The usual infective stage of Trichomonas vaginalis is?

  1. A. Cercariae
  2. B. Trophozoites
  3. C. Metacercaria
  4. D. Miracidium
  5. E. Rediae

Correct answer: B – Trophozoites

Q10: Which parasite can be BEST treated with Metrifonate?

  1. A. Clonorchis sinensis
  2. B. Schistosoma haematobium
  3. C. Fasciola hepatica
  4. D. Opisthorchis felineus
  5. E. Entamoeba histolytica

Correct answer: B – Schistosoma haematobium

Q11: Septrin can be BEST used for prophylaxis against which parasite infection?

  1. A. Fasciolopsis buski
  2. B. Toxoplasma gondii
  3. C. Clonorchis sinensis
  4. D. Echinostoma ilocanum
  5. E. Schistosoma haematobium

Correct answer: B – Toxoplasma gondii

Q12: Prolonged coughing and chest pains can be associated with?

  1. A. Echinostoma ilocanum
  2. B. Paragonimus westermani
  3. C. Fasciolopsis buski
  4. D. Clonorchis sinensis
  5. E. Schistosoma haematobium

Correct answer: B – Paragonimus westermani

Q13: Squamous carcinoma of the bladder is associated with the .............. stage of the parasite.

  1. A. Adult
  2. B. Egg
  3. C. Metacercaria
  4. D. Cercarial
  5. E. All of the above

Correct answer: B – Egg

Q14: Mucoid stools are associated with?

  1. A. Schistosoma japonicum
  2. B. Giardia lamblia
  3. C. Schistosoma mansoni
  4. D. Entamoeba histolytica
  5. E. Fasciola hepatica

Correct answer: D – Entamoeba histolytica

Q15: Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT

  1. A. Hookworm infection can cause pneumonia
  2. B. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool
  3. C. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus
  4. D. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: B – Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool

Q16: Each of the following statements concerning malaria is correct EXCEPT

  1. A. The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector
  2. B. The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract
  3. C. Release of merozoites from red blood cells causes fever and chills
  4. D. Early in infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: B – The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract

Q17: Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance?

  1. A. Plasmid
  2. B. Pilus
  3. C. Capsule
  4. D. Plasma Membrane
  5. E. None of the above

Correct answer: A – Plasmid

Q18: Which of the following is a DNA virus?

  1. A. Reovirus
  2. B. Rotavirus
  3. C. Parvovirus
  4. D. Picornavirus
  5. E. Togavirus

Correct answer: C – Parvovirus

Q19: Which of the following best describes trophozoite stage of Entamoeba histolytica ?

  1. A. Contains ingested red blood cells
  2. B. It is binucleated
  3. C. Has a lemon shape
  4. D. It is the infective stage
  5. E. It has flagella

Correct answer: A – Contains ingested red blood cells

Q20: Which one is NOT a zoonotic disease?

  1. A. Giardiasis
  2. B. Toxoplasmosis
  3. C. Leishmaniasis
  4. D. Ascariasis
  5. E. Cryptosporidiosis

Correct answer: D – Ascariasis

Q21: An infection of which of the following parasites results in megaloblastic anemia?

  1. A. Hymenolepis nana
  2. B. Diphyllobothrium latum
  3. C. Taenia solium
  4. D. Dipylidium caninum
  5. E. Echinococcus granulosus

Correct answer: B – Diphyllobothrium latum

Q22: A patient presents with fever, urticaria, and a ‘ground itch’ lesion on the foot. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Necator americanus infection
  2. B. Trichuris trichiura infection
  3. C. Enterobius vermicularis infection
  4. D. Trichinella spiralis infection
  5. E. Taenia solium infection

Correct answer: A – Necator americanus infection

Q23: Which of the following structures is used for attachment in Giardia lamblia ?

  1. A. Sucker disc
  2. B. Flagella
  3. C. Cilia
  4. D. Pseudopodia
  5. E. Axostyle

Correct answer: A – Sucker disc

Q24: Which parasite has the greatest number of antigenic variations to escape immune detection?

  1. A. Trypanosoma brucei
  2. B. Toxoplasma gondii
  3. C. Plasmodium falciparum
  4. D. Trichomonas vaginalis
  5. E. Leishmania donovani

Correct answer: A – Trypanosoma brucei

Q25: Which of the following is the vector of Trypanosoma cruzi ?

  1. A. Reduviid bug
  2. B. Tse-tse fly
  3. C. Sand fly
  4. D. Mosquito
  5. E. Black fly

Correct answer: A – Reduviid bug

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