Principles of Medical Microbiology and Parasitology MCQs | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 34 MCQs on Principles of Medical Microbiology and Parasitology MCQs with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key con...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

1. Q1. Which one is associated with nocturnal pruritis ani?

   • Ancylostoma brazilense
   • Necator americanus
   • Ascaris lumbricoides
   • Enterobium vermicularis
   • Diphyllobothrium latum
   • Enterobium vermicularis

   Answer: Enterobium vermicularis

2. Q2. Which of the following genera is a haemoflagellate?

   • Leishmania
   • Entamoeba
   • Toxoplasma
   • Ascaris
   • Cercariae
   • Leishmania

   Answer: Leishmania

3. Q3. Which of the following is a water-borne pathogen?

   • Rotavirus
   • Trichuris species
   • Loa loa
   • Onchocerca volvulus
   • Cercariae
   • Rotavirus

   Answer: Rotavirus

4. Q4. Which of the following is used in the management of PCP?

   • Cotrimoxazole
   • Clotrimazole
   • Albendazole
   • Benzimidazole
   • All the above
   • Cotrimoxazole

   Answer: Cotrimoxazole

5. Q5. Which of the following is used for stage I East African sleeping sickness?

   • Suramin
   • Melarsoprol
   • Eflornithine
   • Pentamidine
   • None of the above
   • Pentamidine

   Answer: Pentamidine

6. Q6. Which of the following is BEST used for treatment of amoebiasis?

   • Metronidazole
   • Mebendazole
   • Nitazoxanide
   • Fluconazole
   • Suramin
   • Metronidazole

   Answer: Metronidazole

7. Q7. National Institute of Health (NIH) tape technique is used for diagnosis of?

   • Ancylostoma braziliense
   • Enterobium vermicularis
   • Strongyloides stercoralis
   • Toxocara canis
   • Diphyllobothrium latum
   • Enterobium vermicularis

   Answer: Enterobium vermicularis

8. Q8. Which parasite can cause erosion of bones?

   • Ascaris lumbricoides
   • Echinococcus granulosus
   • Gnathostoma spinigerum
   • Taenia multiceps
   • All of the above
   • Gnathostoma spinigerum

   Answer: Gnathostoma spinigerum

9. Q9. The usual infective stage of Trichomonas vaginalis is?

   • Cercariae
   • Trophozoites
   • Metacercaria
   • Miracidium
   • Rediae
   • Trophozoites

   Answer: Trophozoites

10. Q10. Which parasite can be BEST treated with Metrifonate?

    • Clonorchis sinensis
    • Schistosoma haematobium
    • Fasciola hepatica
    • Opisthorchis felineus
    • Entamoeba histolytica
    • Schistosoma haematobium

    Answer: Schistosoma haematobium

11. Q11. Septrin can be BEST used for prophylaxis against which parasite infection?

    • Fasciolopsis buski
    • Toxoplasma gondii
    • Clonorchis sinensis
    • Echinostoma ilocanum
    • Schistosoma haematobium
    • Toxoplasma gondii

    Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

12. Q12. Prolonged coughing and chest pains can be associated with?

    • Echinostoma ilocanum
    • Paragonimus westermani
    • Fasciolopsis buski
    • Clonorchis sinensis
    • Schistosoma haematobium
    • Paragonimus westermani

    Answer: Paragonimus westermani

13. Q13. Squamous carcinoma of the bladder is associated with the .............. stage of the parasite.

    • Adult
    • Egg
    • Metacercaria
    • Cercarial
    • All of the above
    • Egg

    Answer: Egg

14. Q14. Mucoid stools are associated with?

    • Schistosoma japonicum
    • Giardia lamblia
    • Schistosoma mansoni
    • Entamoeba histolytica
    • Fasciola hepatica
    • Entamoeba histolytica

    Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

15. Q15. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT

    • Hookworm infection can cause pneumonia
    • Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool
    • Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus
    • Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin
    • None of the above
    • Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool

    Answer: Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool

16. Q16. Each of the following statements concerning malaria is correct EXCEPT

    • The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector
    • The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract
    • Release of merozoites from red blood cells causes fever and chills
    • Early in infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
    • None of the above
    • The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract

    Answer: The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract

17. Q17. Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance?

    • Plasmid
    • Pilus
    • Capsule
    • Plasma Membrane
    • None of the above
    • Plasmid

    Answer: Plasmid

18. Q18. Which of the following is a DNA virus?

    • Reovirus
    • Rotavirus
    • Parvovirus
    • Picornavirus
    • Togavirus
    • Parvovirus

    Answer: Parvovirus

19. Q19. Which of the following best describes trophozoite stage of Entamoeba histolytica ?

    • Contains ingested red blood cells
    • It is binucleated
    • Has a lemon shape
    • It is the infective stage
    • It has flagella
    • Contains ingested red blood cells

    Answer: Contains ingested red blood cells

20. Q20. Which one is NOT a zoonotic disease?

    • Giardiasis
    • Toxoplasmosis
    • Leishmaniasis
    • Ascariasis
    • Cryptosporidiosis
    • Ascariasis

    Answer: Ascariasis

21. Q21. An infection of which of the following parasites results in megaloblastic anemia?

    • Hymenolepis nana
    • Diphyllobothrium latum
    • Taenia solium
    • Dipylidium caninum
    • Echinococcus granulosus
    • Diphyllobothrium latum

    Answer: Diphyllobothrium latum

22. Q22. A patient presents with fever, urticaria, and a ‘ground itch’ lesion on the foot. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • Necator americanus infection
    • Trichuris trichiura infection
    • Enterobius vermicularis infection
    • Trichinella spiralis infection
    • Taenia solium infection
    • Necator americanus infection

    Answer: Necator americanus infection

23. Q23. Which of the following structures is used for attachment in Giardia lamblia ?

    • Sucker disc
    • Flagella
    • Cilia
    • Pseudopodia
    • Axostyle
    • Sucker disc

    Answer: Sucker disc

24. Q24. Which parasite has the greatest number of antigenic variations to escape immune detection?

    • *Trypanosoma brucei*
    • *Toxoplasma gondii*
    • *Plasmodium falciparum*
    • *Trichomonas vaginalis*
    • *Leishmania donovani *
    • Trypanosoma brucei

    Answer: *Trypanosoma brucei*

25. Q25. Which of the following is the vector of Trypanosoma cruzi ?

    • Reduviid bug
    • Tse-tse fly
    • Sand fly
    • Mosquito
    • Black fly
    • Reduviid bug

    Answer: Reduviid bug

26. Q26. The mode of infection for Dracunculus medinensis is through

    • Penetration of skin by larvae
    • Ingestion of infected copepods in water
    • Bite from an infected mosquito
    • Inhalation of infective larvae
    • Ingestion of undercooked meat
    • Ingestion of infected copepods in water

    Answer: Ingestion of infected copepods in water

27. Q27. The infective stage of Schistosoma spp. is

    • Egg
    • Cercaria
    • Miracidium
    • Sporocyst
    • Metacercaria
    • Cercaria

    Answer: Cercaria

28. Q28. Which protozoan is transmitted by sand flies and causes cutaneous ulcers?

    • *Leishmania tropica*
    • *Giardia lamblia*
    • *Entamoeba histolytica*
    • *Trypanosoma cruzi*
    • *Trichomonas vaginalis *
    • Leishmania tropica

    Answer: *Leishmania tropica*

29. Q29. Which of the following causes autoinfection?

    • *Strongyloides stercoralis*
    • *Ascaris lumbricoides*
    • *Trichuris trichiura*
    • *Loa loa*
    • *Onchocerca volvulus *
    • Strongyloides stercoralis

    Answer: *Strongyloides stercoralis*

30. Q30. Which of the following is used for diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis?

    • Bone marrow aspirate
    • Stool microscopy
    • Skin scraping
    • Urine test
    • Sputum smear
    • Bone marrow aspirate

    Answer: Bone marrow aspirate

31. Q31. Which of the following is a ciliated protozoan?

    • *Balantidium coli*
    • *Giardia lamblia*
    • *Entamoeba histolytica*
    • *Trypanosoma cruzi*
    • *Trichomonas vaginalis *
    • Balantidium coli

    Answer: *Balantidium coli*

32. Q32. Which of the following is most likely transmitted via organ transplantation?

    • *Toxoplasma gondii*
    • *Schistosoma haematobium*
    • *Ascaris lumbricoides*
    • *Enterobius vermicularis*
    • *Giardia lamblia *
    • Toxoplasma gondii

    Answer: *Toxoplasma gondii*

33. Q33. Which stage of Taenia solium is responsible for cysticercosis?

    • Larval stage
    • Egg
    • Adult worm
    • Cysticercus cellulosae
    • Scolex
    • Egg

    Answer: Egg

34. Q34. In Plasmodium falciparum , which form is taken up by the mosquito?

    • Sporozoite
    • Merozoite
    • Trophozoite
    • Gametocyte
    • Schizont
    • Gametocyte

    Answer: Gametocyte