CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY MCQs | MCQ Quiz | OmpathStudy Kenya

Practice 34 MCQs on CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY MCQs with OmpathStudy. Built for Kenyan medical and health students to revise key concepts and prepare for exams.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

1. Q1. In liver cells, bilirubin is mainly conjugated with

   • Glucose
   • Cholic Acid
   • Glycine
   • Glucuronic Acid
   • Iduronic Acid
   • Glucuronic Acid

   Answer: Glucuronic Acid

2. Q2. Which of the following pathways are important in RBC energy metabolism?

   • The phosphogluconate pathway, Glycolysis, Luebering-Rapapport
   • The TCA cycle and the electron transport chain, 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate pathway, glycolysis
   • The TCA cycle and the electron transport chain, 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate pathway, HMP shunt
   • B and C
   • None of the above
   • The phosphogluconate pathway, Glycolysis, Luebering-Rapapport

   Answer: The phosphogluconate pathway, Glycolysis, Luebering-Rapapport

3. Q3. An abnormal increase in red blood cell count is characterized by

   • Anemia
   • Leukaemia
   • Thrombocytopenia
   • Polycythemia
   • Hemoglobinopathies
   • Polycythemia

   Answer: Polycythemia

4. Q4. Which of the following is the brain’s preferred source of energy?

   • Glucose
   • Glycogen
   • Ketone bodies
   • Lactate
   • Fatty acids
   • Glucose

   Answer: Glucose

5. Q5. Which of these statements is TRUE?

   • A-negative blood can probably be safely donated to a person with A-positive blood.
   • Antibodies against the Rh antigen do not develop unless an Rh-positive person is exposed to Rh-negative blood.
   • The largest percentages of people in the U.S. are Rh-negative.
   • Rh-negative individuals can receive many transfusions of Rh-positive blood before they have a transfusion reaction.
   • Rh-negative mothers cannot have an Rh-positive baby.
   • A-negative blood can probably be safely donated to a person with A-positive blood.

   Answer: A-negative blood can probably be safely donated to a person with A-positive blood.

6. Q6. One of the following statements is TRUE regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn

   • Before birth, bilirubin produced by ruptured erythrocytes is removed through the placenta.
   • This condition usually occurs with the second Rh-positive pregnancy of the Rh-negative mother.
   • After birth, this condition may continue because maternal antibodies are still present in the baby’s system.
   • Jaundice may occur if bilirubin accumulates in tissues.
   • All of these statements are correct.
   • All of these statements are correct.

   Answer: All of these statements are correct.

7. Q7. Hematocrit is a measure of

   • The amount of hemoglobin in a given volume of blood.
   • The percentage of total blood volume composed of erythrocytes.
   • The percentage of total blood volume composed of leukocytes.
   • The percentage of total blood volume composed of thrombocytes.
   • The percentage of erythrocytes divided by the percentage of leukocytes.
   • The percentage of total blood volume composed of erythrocytes.

   Answer: The percentage of total blood volume composed of erythrocytes.

8. Q8. High-energy phosphate bonds for instant human muscle contraction are readily provided by

   • Arginine phosphate
   • Oxidative phosphorylation
   • ATP
   • Glycolysis
   • Phosphocreatine
   • Phosphocreatine

   Answer: Phosphocreatine

9. Q9. The Rapapport-Luebering cycle is mainly located in

   • Liver
   • Erythrocytes
   • Muscles
   • Brain
   • Kidney
   • Erythrocytes

   Answer: Erythrocytes

10. Q10. The major site of erythrocyte production in humans is the

    • Kidney
    • Liver
    • Bone marrow
    • Spleen
    • Brain
    • Bone marrow

    Answer: Bone marrow

11. Q11. The most rapid method to resynthesize ATP during exercise is through

    • Glycolysis
    • Phosphocreatine breakdown
    • Glycogenolysis
    • Gluconeogenesis
    • Electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
    • Phosphocreatine breakdown

    Answer: Phosphocreatine breakdown

12. Q12. The following statements are true regarding the ABO blood grouping, EXCEPT

    • A person with type O blood can donate blood to individuals with type A, B, AB, or O blood types.
    • Transfusions should be made considering the plasma of the donor and the erythrocytes of the patient (recipient).
    • A person with type A blood should not receive a transfusion from someone with type AB blood.
    • A person with type O blood has both the A and B antigens.
    • Type AB blood should be given only to other persons with AB bloo
    • A person with type O blood has both the A and B antigens.

    Answer: A person with type O blood has both the A and B antigens.

13. Q13. Which of the following is FALSE of cardiac and skeletal muscles?

    • Cardiac muscles are attached to bones; skeletal muscles occur in the heart.
    • Skeletal and cardiac muscles are controlled voluntarily and involuntarily, respectively.
    • Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated; cardiac cells are mononucleated.
    • Both have striated appearance.
    • Skeletal muscle aids locomotion; cardiac aids in blood circulation.
    • Cardiac muscles are attached to bones; skeletal muscles occur in the heart.

    Answer: Cardiac muscles are attached to bones; skeletal muscles occur in the heart.

14. Q14. Excessive destruction of erythrocytes due to enzyme deficiency can result in

    • Thalassemia
    • Aplastic anemia
    • Pernicious anemia
    • Hemolytic anemia
    • Microcytic anemia
    • Hemolytic anemia

    Answer: Hemolytic anemia

15. Q15. During hemoglobin recycling in the spleen, heme is initially converted into

    • Bilirubin
    • Biliverdin
    • Urobilinogen
    • Stercobilinogen
    • Globulin
    • Biliverdin

    Answer: Biliverdin

16. Q16. Erythrocyte

    • Production is inhibited by anemia due to blood loss.
    • Production is impaired at high altitude.
    • Production is stimulated by erythropoietin.
    • Are produced by the bone marrow of almost every bone in the body during the first 5 years of life.
    • Are not produced in the fetal liver.
    • Production is stimulated by erythropoietin.

    Answer: Production is stimulated by erythropoietin.

17. Q17. Bile salts

    • Are converted to secondary bile salts in the colon.
    • Inhibit fat digestion.
    • Inhibits intestinal motility.
    • Help digestion of proteins.
    • Stimulate bile secretion from the liver.
    • Are converted to secondary bile salts in the colon.

    Answer: Are converted to secondary bile salts in the colon.

18. Q18. The following are all functions of the kidney EXCEPT

    • Control blood pressure.
    • Control body temperature.
    • To remove waste products from the body.
    • To synthesize electrolytes.
    • To synthesize red blood cells.
    • Control body temperature.

    Answer: Control body temperature.

19. Q19. Substances which are inactivated and excreted by the liver include the following EXCEPT

    • Amino acid
    • Drugs
    • Steroid hormones
    • Enzymes
    • Bilirubin
    • Amino acid

    Answer: Amino acid

20. Q20. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is an example of which type of marker?

    • Steroid
    • Enzyme
    • Oncofetal antigen
    • Hormone
    • Carbohydrate
    • Enzyme

    Answer: Enzyme

21. Q21. Elevation in total CSF protein may be seen in all the following states EXCEPT

    • Epilepsy
    • Brain tumor
    • CNS trauma
    • Stroke
    • Bacterial meningitis
    • Epilepsy

    Answer: Epilepsy

22. Q22. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia?

    • Sepsis
    • Acute liver failure
    • Chronic renal failure
    • Insulinoma
    • Tay-Sachs disease
    • Tay-Sachs disease

    Answer: Tay-Sachs disease

23. Q23. Which of the following proteins is the best indicator of hemolysis?

    • Ceruloplasmin
    • Hemosiderin
    • Transferrin
    • Haptoglobin
    • Ferritin
    • Haptoglobin

    Answer: Haptoglobin

24. Q24. In the diabetic patient, residual insulin secretion can be monitored by

    • Glucose tolerance test
    • C-peptide levels
    • Pancreatic polypeptide levels
    • Insulin levels
    • Amylase test
    • C-peptide levels

    Answer: C-peptide levels

25. Q25. Which of the following most accurately describes the release of pancreatic enzymes following acute pancreatitis?

    • Enzymes are released within 2-12 hours and return to normal after 7 days.
    • Peak lipase concentrations are higher than peak amylase concentrations.
    • Amylase and lipase are increased 2- to 4-fold over normal.
    • Enzymes are released within 2-12 hours and return to normal after 3-4 days.
    • Peak amylase concentrations are higher than peak lipase concentrations.
    • Enzymes are released within 2-12 hours and return to normal after 3-4 days.

    Answer: Enzymes are released within 2-12 hours and return to normal after 3-4 days.

26. Q26. The probability that disease is present when a test result falls outside the reference interval is called the test’s

    • Specificity
    • Sensitivity
    • Positive predictive value
    • Efficiency
    • Efficiency and sensitivity
    • Positive predictive value

    Answer: Positive predictive value

27. Q27. Which of the following congenital disorders is characterized by high indirect bilirubin?

    • Gilbert’s syndrome
    • Dubin-Johnson syndrome
    • Crigler-Najjar syndrome
    • Rotor’s syndrome
    • 1 and 3
    • 1 and 3

    Answer: 1 and 3

28. Q28. The protein dipstick is most sensitive to

    • Albumin
    • All globulins equally
    • Bence Jones proteins
    • Tamm Horsfall mucoprotein
    • All proteins equally
    • Albumin

    Answer: Albumin

29. Q29. What is the fate of creatine produced in the kidneys, liver, and pancreas?

    • 1 and 3
    • 4 only
    • 2 and 4
    • 1, 2, and 3
    • 1, 2, 3, 4
    • 1, 2, 3, 4

    Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4

30. Q30. Which of the following is FALSE concerning chylomicrons?

    • Derived predominately from the alimentary tract from exogenously absorbed fats.
    • Their apo B-100 and apo E components are transferred to LDL.
    • Are converted to a chylomicron remnant through lipolysis.
    • Their apoproteins A-I, A-II, and C components are transferred to HDL.
    • They have a density that is less than that of water.
    • Their apo B-100 and apo E components are transferred to LDL.

    Answer: Their apo B-100 and apo E components are transferred to LDL.

31. Q31. Positive urine for bilirubin can be caused by the presence of

    • Unconjugated bilirubin
    • Any of these compounds
    • Conjugated bilirubin
    • Delta bilirubin
    • Urobilinogen
    • Conjugated bilirubin

    Answer: Conjugated bilirubin

32. Q32. Which of the following are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

    • Gallstones or obstructing tumor
    • Chronic alcohol use and biliary tract disease
    • Hypertriglyceridemia
    • Abdominal trauma
    • Acute alcohol ingestion or drug use
    • Chronic alcohol use and biliary tract disease

    Answer: Chronic alcohol use and biliary tract disease

33. Q33. A chronic alcoholic was brought to the hospital with complaints of protuberant abdomen (ascites), edema feet. He also had a history of hemorrhages. Blood biochemistry revealed: High serum transaminases, low serum total proteins, albumin, and prolonged prothrombin time. Urine analysis was normal. What could be the possible diagnosis?

    • Renal failure
    • Protein malnutrition
    • Cirrhosis of the liver
    • Heart failure
    • Myocardial infarction
    • Cirrhosis of the liver

    Answer: Cirrhosis of the liver

34. Q34. Choose the correct option: One out of the following enzymes has absolute specificity for its substrate.

    • Urease
    • Carboxypeptidase
    • Pancreatic lipase
    • Lipoprotein lipase
    • Salivary amylases
    • Urease

    Answer: Urease