EOY 2021 — Past Paper Questions & Answers

55 clinical MCQs in General Pathology. The genetic defect associated with Fabry's disease is most likely carried on. Kenya, Africa and global revision.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. The genetic defect associated with Fabry's disease is most likely carried on

    Answer: The X-chromosome

    Explanation: Fabry's disease is an X-linked lysosomal storage disorder caused by a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A.

  2. Q2. Amount of dietary iodine in the control of thyroid hormone secretion

    Answer: Forcing function

    Explanation: The body regulates the uptake and utilization of iodine to maintain thyroid hormone levels, making the amount of iodine available a variable that is subject to control.

  3. Q3. Movement of Cl- ion from gastric cells into the gastric cavity

    Answer: diffusion

    Explanation: Chloride ions are actively transported into the gastric lumen via specific channels and transporters, which is not described by diffusion, filtration, osmosis, or pinocytosis.

  4. Q4. Myeloid cells in innate and adaptive immunity EXCLUDE the following:

    Answer: Dendritic cell

    Explanation: Natural killer (NK) cells are lymphocytes, which are part of the lymphoid lineage, whereas the other options are myeloid cells.

  5. Q5. The following statement is FALSE about the cells arising from the common lymphoid progenitor

    Answer: Natural killer cells are modified T lymphocytes

    Explanation: Natural killer cells are a distinct lineage of lymphocytes that develop from common lymphoid progenitors, separate from T lymphocytes.

  6. Q6. While complete aerobic oxidation of one mole of glucose in the cell yields 38 moles of ATP, complete catabolism of one mole of a 6- carbon atoms fatty acid through the citric acid cycle yields

    Answer: Nearly equal amount of energy molecules

    Explanation: Fatty acids are more reduced than carbohydrates, leading to a higher ATP yield per carbon atom, with longer fatty acids typically yielding about twice the ATP of glucose.

  7. Q7. 25. Immune privileged sites include the following EXCEPT:

    Answer: Testis

    Explanation: Bone marrow is a primary lymphoid organ, actively involved in immune responses, and is not considered an immune privileged site.

  8. Q8. 40. The human genome

    Answer: Experiences only negative modification (mutation) when changes occur at meiosis

    Explanation: The human genome contains approximately 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes, with 30,000 being a commonly cited, though slightly outdated, estimate.

  9. Q9. 61. The following are characteristics of skeletal muscle fibres EXCEPT:

    Answer: Extensibility

    Explanation: Skeletal muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract and does not exhibit automaticity, which is the ability to generate its own impulses.

  10. Q10. 64. Increasing the frequency of stimulation so that a muscle contracts without relaxation is called

    Answer: Synergy

    Explanation: Tetany is a sustained muscle contraction resulting from a high frequency of stimulation, preventing the muscle from relaxing between stimuli.

  11. Q11. 8. Which type of sensation is most affected if the lesion is in the sensory cortex?

    Answer: Position & fine touch

    Explanation: Discriminative sensations like position sense (proprioception) and fine touch require extensive processing in the sensory cortex for accurate perception and localization.

  12. Q12. 4. There are several important differences between a chemical and an electrical synapse. Which of the following statements does NOT constitute a a difference between these two types of synapses?

    Answer: Slow vs. faster propagation

    Explanation: Both chemical and electrical synapses can occur between nerve cells and muscle cells (e.g., neuromuscular junction for chemical, gap junctions in cardiac muscle for electrical).

  13. Q13. 37. The following units of measurement would be appropriate

    Answer: Milliequivalents per Liter of glucose concentration

    Explanation: Femtoliters (fL) are a standard unit for measuring cell volume, particularly in hematology (e.g., Mean Corpuscular Volume).

  14. Q14. 73. When a calcium ion binds to troponin,

    Answer: muscle relaxation occurs.

    Explanation: Calcium binding to troponin causes a conformational change that moves tropomyosin away from the myosin-binding sites on actin, allowing cross-bridge formation.

  15. Q15. 19. The following is false regarding Sensory systems

    Answer: Monitor the energy levels in the environment

    Explanation: Sensory systems detect and transmit information about stimuli; the initiation and execution of vegetative (autonomic) actions are primarily functions of the motor and autonomic nervous systems.

  16. Q16. 3. The following is FALSE about Excitatory post-synaptic potentials.

    Answer: Decline exponentially with a time constant.

    Explanation: Excitatory post-synaptic potentials (EPSPs) are graded potentials that decay over distance and time; they are not actively propagated like action potentials.

  17. Q17. 98. Which of the following are adrenergic fibers?

    Answer: Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers.

    Explanation: Adrenergic fibers release norepinephrine (or epinephrine), which is characteristic of most postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

  18. Q18. 46. The nucleotide sequence that codes for start of protein synthesis is

    Answer: Totally different for each protein

    Explanation: The start codon for protein synthesis is AUG (in mRNA). While "AUGG" is a typo and "UAAG" is a stop codon, this option is the only one that refers to codons involved in protein synthesis, making it the most plausible intended answer among the choices.

  19. Q19. Synthesis of a specific protein is initiated by

    Answer: An integrase

    Explanation: RNA transcriptase (RNA polymerase) synthesizes mRNA from a DNA template, which is the first step in gene expression leading to protein synthesis.

  20. Q20. During inflammation

    Answer: The second macrophage invasion is the first line of defense

    Explanation: During inflammation, cell adhesion molecules are upregulated on endothelial cells to facilitate the extravasation of leukocytes into the injured tissue.

  21. Q21. pH of gastric acid secreted.

    Answer: External influences

    Explanation: In a homeostatic control system, the pH of gastric acid is a physiological parameter that is regulated and maintained within a narrow range, making it a controlled variable.

  22. Q22. Synaptic signaling between adjacent neurons is like hormone signaling in which of the following ways?

    Answer: It sends its signal molecules quite a distance.

    Explanation: Both synaptic signaling (neurotransmitters) and hormone signaling involve specific signaling molecules binding to specific receptors on target cells to elicit a response.

  23. Q23. Reflex arc:

    Answer: Is composed of receptors, afferent and efferent neurones only.

    Explanation: A reflex arc typically includes an integration center, which for most reflexes is located within the central nervous system (CNS).

  24. Q24. Concerning the parasympathetic nervous system:

    Answer: Its postganglionic cell bodies are in the CNS.

    Explanation: Parasympathetic stimulation generally increases the secretion of watery saliva from salivary glands.

  25. Q25. The major difference between hormones that have intracellular receptors and those that have cell membrane receptors is that the former tend to be

    Answer: Proteins

    Explanation: Hormones that bind to intracellular receptors (e.g., steroid hormones) must be lipid-soluble (hydrophobic) to cross the cell membrane and enter the cytoplasm or nucleus.

  26. Q26. Nonconstitutive exocytosis

    Answer: Occurs exclusively for excretion of enzymes

    Explanation: Nonconstitutive (regulated) exocytosis involves the release of specific, fully processed molecules (e.g., hormones, neurotransmitters) that are stored in vesicles and released in response to a specific signal.

  27. Q27. Proteins that contain a src homology 2 domain (SH2 domain)

    Answer: have a phosphoserine residue that causes them to bind to other proteins

    Explanation: SH2 domains specifically recognize and bind to phosphorylated tyrosine residues on other proteins, mediating protein-protein interactions.

  28. Q28. The total body iron content amounts to;

    Answer: 3-4gm

    Explanation: The total body iron content in an adult human is typically between 3 to 4 grams.

  29. Q29. Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific amino proteins in proteins are

    Answer: important in yeast mating factors that contain amino acids.

    Explanation: Receptor tyrosine kinases are a class of membrane receptors that, upon ligand binding, phosphorylate specific tyrosine residues on intracellular proteins.

  30. Q30. Functions of the sensory systems include the following EXCEPT

    Answer: Effecting movement of cilia in some epithelia

    Explanation: Sensory systems detect and transmit information about the environment, but motor systems are responsible for executing desired changes.

  31. Q31. It is correct to say that:

    Answer: Stimulation of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons causes release of noradrenaline.

    Explanation: Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released by preganglionic neurons in both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, stimulating nicotinic receptors on postganglionic neurons in the autonomic ganglia.

  32. Q32. The propagation of an action potential across a chemical synapse consists of several steps. Which of the following steps is the slowest?

    Answer: Exocytosis of the neuro-transmitter

    Explanation: While diffusion and exocytosis contribute to synaptic delay, the conformational change required for a receptor-operated channel to open after ligand binding can be a rate-limiting step.

  33. Q33. Withdrawal reflex upon exposure to pain

    Answer: Adaptive control

    Explanation: A withdrawal reflex is a negative feedback mechanism where the response (withdrawal) counteracts the stimulus (pain).

  34. Q34. If I tell you that our very own Dr. Mjuaji has just discovered a new membrane channel that can change the membrane potential of neurons from -65 mV to -60 mV when activated, how would you characterize it?

    Answer: as a new hyperpolarizing EPSP.

    Explanation: A change from -65 mV to -60 mV is a depolarization (less negative), and since it brings the membrane potential closer to the threshold for an action potential, it is an Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP).

  35. Q35. The reason why antibiotics inhibit bacterial multiplication without affecting host cell multiplication is because

    Answer: of the sheer difference in number of cells

    Explanation: Many antibiotics exploit the structural differences between bacterial (70S, with 30S and 50S subunits) and eukaryotic (80S, with 40S and 60S subunits) ribosomes to selectively inhibit bacterial protein synthesis.

  36. Q36. In many cells, adrenalin will bind to the alpha-1 receptor and Gaq will be activated. All of the following will happen EXCEPT

    Answer: Protein kinase activity will be decreased

    Explanation: Alpha-1 receptor activation via Gq leads to increased phospholipase C activity, generating IP3 and DAG, which in turn increase intracellular Ca2+ and activate Protein Kinase C, generally leading to increased protein phosphorylation, not decreased protein kinase activity.

  37. Q37. Proprioception includes the following EXCEPT

    Answer: Joint position

    Explanation: Proprioception is the sense of body position and movement, encompassing joint position and muscle sense; pain (nociception) and temperature (thermoception) are distinct sensory modalities.

  38. Q38. Which one of the following is not a criterion for small neurotransmitter (NT) status?

    Answer: evidence of presynaptic release.

    Explanation: All options A, B, C, and E are generally considered criteria or supporting evidence for a substance to be classified as a neurotransmitter.

  39. Q39. Small transmitter molecules are:

    Answer: made in the soma, packaged in small synaptic vesicles and transported down axons.

    Explanation: Small molecule neurotransmitters are typically synthesized in the presynaptic terminal and packaged into small, clear synaptic vesicles.

  40. Q40. Weight is controlled by this.

    Answer: Adaptive control

    Explanation: Body weight is regulated by complex homeostatic mechanisms involving hormones and neural signals that operate primarily through negative feedback loops to maintain a set point.

  41. Q41. Following the release of all chemical messengers from their source cells, all of the following will occur EXCEPT

    Answer: The hormone will travel to its target cell

    Explanation: Many chemical messengers, particularly peptide hormones, bind to receptors on the cell surface and do not enter the target cell to elicit a response.

  42. Q42. The following antigen can be detected as a microbiome by the human immune system:

    Answer: Commensals found on skin, oral mucosa, conjunctiva and gastrointestinal mucosa

    Explanation: The microbiome refers to the community of commensal microorganisms (like those found on skin and mucosa) whose antigens are recognized and tolerated by the human immune system.

  43. Q43. Which one of the following conditions will result in a decrease in the magnitude of a nerve membrane action potential?

    Answer: Increasing the extracellular concentration of sodium.

    Explanation: While hyperpolarization (making the membrane potential more negative) typically increases action potential magnitude by increasing Na+ channel availability, in some contexts, extreme hyperpolarization could lead to reduced excitability or a failure to reach full action potential amplitude, effectively decreasing the observed magnitude. (Note: Physiologically, stimulating during the relative refractory period (B) is a more direct cause of decreased action potential magnitude.)

  44. Q44. A muscle cramp is most likely due to lack of

    Answer: Acetylcholine.

    Explanation: Muscle cramps, particularly sustained contractions (contractures), often result from insufficient ATP, which is required for the myosin heads to detach from actin, leading to a prolonged rigor state.

  45. Q45. Growth of hair is an example of this

    Answer: Feedforward control

    Explanation: Hair growth follows a genetically programmed cycle (anagen, catagen, telogen) with intrinsic timing and minimal continuous feedback regulation to maintain a specific set point, characteristic of an open-loop control system.

  46. Q46. Actin is tethered to Z lines in the sarcomere by:

    Answer: Chitin

    Explanation: Alpha-actinin is the primary protein that anchors actin filaments to the Z-line in the sarcomere.

  47. Q47. In the stages of sensory stimulus handling, the following is correct EXCEPT

    Answer: Modality discrimination begins at the sensory organ

    Explanation: Pain is generally poorly localized compared to discriminative touch, which allows for precise localization.

  48. Q48. The pancreatic cells in control of body glucose

    Answer: Forcing function

    Explanation: Pancreatic beta cells act as sensors for blood glucose levels, releasing insulin in response to high levels.

  49. Q49. Regarding erythrocyte production, all the following statements are true, Except:

    Answer: It takes place normally in the bone marrow of long bones during adult life.

    Explanation: In adults, erythropoiesis primarily occurs in the red bone marrow of flat bones (e.g., sternum, pelvis, vertebrae, ribs), not typically the long bones (which are mainly fatty marrow).

  50. Q50. Pyrimidines

    Answer: Are broken down to uric acid for excretion

    Explanation: Pyrimidines are cytosine, thymine (in DNA), and uracil (in RNA). Guanine is a purine.

  51. Q51. In the first 3 months of intrauterine life blood is formed in the;

    Answer: Yolk sac

    Explanation: Hematopoiesis in the first trimester of intrauterine life primarily occurs in the yolk sac.

  52. Q52. Muscular hypertrophy in an athlete.

    Answer: Open loop control

    Explanation: Muscular hypertrophy is an adaptive response where muscles increase in size and strength in response to increased workload or stress.

  53. Q53. The normal albumin/globulin ratio is:

    Answer: 1:2

    Explanation: The normal albumin/globulin ratio is typically greater than 1, often around 1.5:1 to 2.5:1.

  54. Q54. Type I skeletal muscle fibres:

    Answer: Contain less myoglobin than type II fibres.

    Explanation: Type I muscle fibers are slow-twitch, characterized by slower myosin ATPase activity, leading to fewer actin-myosin bonds formed per second.

  55. Q55. The following is correct of sensory receptors EXCEPT

    Answer: Are always associated with axons

    Explanation: While many sensory receptors are nerve endings (axons), some are specialized cells that synapse with neurons and are not themselves axons.

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