Genetic Disorders MCQs Examination (Part 2)

60 clinical MCQs in Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics. A genetic variant with at least two alleles occurring in at least 1% of the population is. Keny...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. A genetic variant with at least two alleles occurring in at least 1% of the population is termed

    Answer: Mutation

    Explanation: A polymorphism is defined as a genetic variant that has at least two alleles and occurs in at least 1% of the population, distinguishing it from rare mutations. ---

  2. Q2. In type 1 diabetes, approximately how many genes contribute most significantly to disease risk?

    Answer: While 20-30 genes

    Explanation: While 20-30 genes are implicated in type 1 diabetes, only 6-7 are most important, with a few HLA alleles contributing more than 50% of the risk. ---

  3. Q3. Which environmental factor commonly unmasks the genetic trait in type 2 diabetes mellitus?

    Answer: Obesity and weight gain

    Explanation: Type 2 diabetes has features of a complex multigenic disorder where obesity and weight gain often unmask the diabetic genetic trait, demonstrating gene-environment interaction. ---

  4. Q4. Approximately what percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: 50%

    Explanation: Approximately 50% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the importance of chromosomal integrity for fetal development. ---

  5. Q5. The G-banding technique uses which stain to visualize chromosomes?

    Answer: Giemsa stain

    Explanation: The G-banding (Giemsa banding) technique is widely used to stain chromosomes, producing distinctive patterns of alternating light and dark bands that allow identification of each chromosome. ---

  6. Q6. A chromosome number of 69 (3n) would be classified as

    Answer: Since it's a multiple other than 2n, it's also polyploid (specifically triploid).

    Explanation: 69 chromosomes (3n) is an exact multiple of the haploid number (n=23), making it euploid. Since it's a multiple other than 2n, it's also polyploid (specifically triploid). ---

  7. Q7. The chief cause of aneuploidy is

    Answer: Nondisjunction during meiosis

    Explanation: Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes during the first meiotic division or failure of sister chromatids to separate during the second meiotic division is the chief cause of aneuploidy. ---

  8. Q8. Monosomy involving an autosome is

    Answer: Incompatible with life

    Explanation: Monosomy involving an autosome is incompatible with life, whereas trisomies of certain autosomes and monosomy of sex chromosomes can be compatible with life. ---

  9. Q9. Mosaicism is defined as

    Answer: Mosaicism

    Explanation: Mosaicism is the presence of two or more populations of cells with different complements of chromosomes in the same individual, usually resulting from postzygotic mitotic nondisjunction. ---

  10. Q10. In cytogenetic notation, "p" denotes

    Answer: The short arm of a chromosome

    Explanation: In cytogenetic shorthand, "p" (from French "petit") denotes the short arm of a chromosome, while "q" denotes the long arm. ---

  11. Q11. The notation 46,XX,t(2;5)(q31;p14) indicates

    Answer: Reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 2 and 5

    Explanation: This notation indicates a reciprocal translocation involving the long arm of chromosome 2 at region 3 band 1, and the short arm of chromosome 5 at region 1 band 4. ---

  12. Q12. Robertsonian translocation typically involves

    Answer: Two acrocentric chromosomes

    Explanation: Robertsonian (centric) fusion is a reciprocal translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes, involving the short arm of one and long arm of the other, forming one large and one very small chromosome. ---

  13. Q13. The most common isochromosome in live births involves

    Answer: Long arm of the X chromosome [i(Xq)]

    Explanation: The most common isochromosome in live births is i(Xq), involving the long arm of the X chromosome, resulting in monosomy for Xp genes and trisomy for Xq genes. ---

  14. Q14. An isochromosome results from

    Answer: Horizontal division of the centromere

    Explanation: Isochromosomes result when the centromere divides horizontally (rather than vertically), leading to loss of one arm and duplication of the other, creating two identical arms. ---

  15. Q15. Which statement about chromosomal abnormalities is correct?

    Answer: Loss of chromosomal material produces more severe defects than gain

    Explanation: In general, loss of chromosomal material produces more severe defects than does gain of chromosomal material, which is why monosomies are typically more severe than trisomies. ---

  16. Q16. Sex chromosome imbalances compared to autosomal imbalances are

    Answer: Tolerated much better

    Explanation: Imbalances of sex chromosomes (excess or loss) are tolerated much better than similar imbalances of autosomes, often producing subtle abnormalities. ---

  17. Q17. Quantitative trait loci (QTLs) include all of the following EXCEPT

    Answer: Hair color

    Explanation: QTLs are normal phenotypic characteristics governed by multigenic inheritance showing continuous variation, including hair color, eye color, height, and intelligence. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder. ---

  18. Q18. The most common chromosomal disorder is

    Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrom

    Explanation: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common chromosomal disorder, occurring with notable frequency compared to other chromosomal abnormalities. ---

  19. Q19. In about 95% of Down syndrome cases, the extra chromosome 21 is of

    Answer: Maternal origin

    Explanation: In approximately 95% of trisomy 21 cases, the extra chromosome is of maternal origin, resulting from meiotic nondisjunction in the ovum. ---

  20. Q20. Maternal age has the strongest correlation with which type of Down syndrome?

    Answer: Meiotic nondisjunction form

    Explanation: Maternal age has a strong influence on Down syndrome due to meiotic nondisjunction (95% of cases), with incidence increasing dramatically with advancing maternal age. ---

  21. Q21. The translocation form of Down syndrome accounts for approximately what percentage of cases?

    Answer: 25%

    Explanation: About 4% of trisomy 21 patients have the extra chromosomal material as a translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21 to chromosome 22 or 14, often familial. ---

  22. Q22. Mosaic Down syndrome accounts for approximately what percentage of cases?

    Answer: 10%

    Explanation: Approximately 1% of trisomy 21 patients are mosaics with a mixture of 46- and 47-chromosome cells, resulting from mitotic nondisjunction during early embryogenesis. ---

  23. Q23. Which cardiac defect is most common in Down syndrome?

    Answer: Endocardial cushion defects

    Explanation: Approximately 40% of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease, most commonly endocardial cushion defects including atrial and ventricular septal defects. ---

  24. Q24. Children with trisomy 21 have what increased risk of developing acute leukemia?

    Answer: 10- to 20-fold

    Explanation: Children with trisomy 21 have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute leukemia, including both acute lymphoblastic and acute myeloid leukemias. ---

  25. Q25. Most Down syndrome patients older than 40 develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of

    Answer: Alzheimer disease

    Explanation: Virtually all patients with trisomy 21 older than age 40 develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease. ---

  26. Q26. The current median age at death for persons with Down syndrome is

    Answer: 25 years

    Explanation: Improved medical care has increased longevity in Down syndrome from a median of 25 years in 1983 to currently 47 years. ---

  27. Q27. Most Down syndrome patients have an IQ in which range?

    Answer: 25 to 50

    Explanation: Down syndrome is a leading cause of severe mental retardation; approximately 80% have an IQ of 25 to 50. ---

  28. Q28. Trisomy 18 is also known as

    Answer: Edwards syndrome

    Explanation: Trisomy 18 is also known as Edwards syndrome, occurring less commonly than trisomy 21 and associated with severe malformations and early death. ---

  29. Q29. Trisomy 13 is also known as

    Answer: Patau syndrome

    Explanation: Trisomy 13 is also known as Patau syndrome, associated with increased maternal age, severe malformations, and death usually within the first year of life. ---

  30. Q30. The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome was previously thought to represent which two separate disorders?

    Answer: DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome

    Explanation: The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome encompasses what were previously believed to be two different disorders: DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome. ---

  31. Q31. Which gene on chromosome 22 is suspected to be responsible for DiGeorge syndrome features?

    Answer: TBX1

    Explanation: The transcription factor gene TBX1 in the 22q11.2 region is suspected to be responsible for DiGeorge syndrome features, as its loss correlates with syndrome occurrence. ---

  32. Q32. Patients with 22q11.2 deletion are at particularly high risk for

    Answer: Psychoses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder

    Explanation: In addition to malformations, patients with 22q11.2 deletion are at particularly high risk for developing psychoses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. ---

  33. Q33. The diagnosis of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome is established by

    Answer: Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

    Explanation: While diagnosis may be suspected clinically, it can only be established by detection of the deletion using fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH). ---

  34. Q34. Clinical features of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome include all EXCEPT

    Answer: Hepatic involvement is not characteristic.

    Explanation: Features include cardiac defects, palate abnormalities, facial dysmorphism, developmental delay, thymic hypoplasia, and parathyroid hypoplasia. Hepatic involvement is not characteristic. ---

  35. Q35. When T cell immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia dominate in 22q11.2 deletion, the patient is said to have

    Answer: Velocardiofacial syndrome

    Explanation: When T cell immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia are dominant features, patients are said to have DiGeorge syndrome, while velocardiofacial syndrome has pronounced dysmorphology and cardiac defects. ---

  36. Q36. According to the common disease-common variant hypothesis, complex disorders occur when

    Answer: Many polymorphisms with modest effects are co-inherited

    Explanation: Complex multigenic disorders occur when many polymorphisms, each with modest effect and low penetrance, are co-inherited, according to the common disease-common variant hypothesis. ---

  37. Q37. A ring chromosome forms when

    Answer: A ring chromosome

    Explanation: A ring chromosome is a variant of deletion where, after loss of segments from each end of the chromosome, the remaining arms unite to form a ring structure. ---

  38. Q38. Deletion of which chromosome's short arm causes cri du chat syndrome?

    Answer: Chromosome 5

    Explanation: Cri du chat syndrome results from partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 (5p-), named for the characteristic cat-like cry of affected infants. ---

  39. Q39. An inversion occurs when

    Answer: Two interstitial breaks occur and segment reunites after turnaround

    Explanation: Inversions occur when there are two interstitial breaks in a chromosome and the segment between them reunites after rotating 180 degrees (complete turnaround). ---

  40. Q40. A balanced reciprocal translocation involves

    Answer: Loss of genetic material

    Explanation: Balanced reciprocal translocations involve exchange of chromosomal material between two chromosomes with no net gain or loss of genetic material, potentially causing problems during meiosis. ---

  41. Q41. Which best describes complex multigenic disorders?

    Answer: disorders are caused by interactions between variant forms of genes and environmental factors.

    Explanation: Complex multigenic (or multifactorial/polygenic) disorders are caused by interactions between variant forms of genes and environmental factors. ---

  42. Q42. Anaphase lag can lead to aneuploidy through

    Answer: Failure of pairing followed by random assortment

    Explanation: Failure of pairing of homologous chromosomes followed by random assortment (anaphase lag) can lead to aneuploidy, in addition to nondisjunction. ---

  43. Q43. Mosaicism affecting which chromosomes is most common?

    Answer: Sex chromosomes

    Explanation: Mosaicism affecting sex chromosomes is common, whereas autosomal mosaicism is relatively uncommon. ---

  44. Q44. In most chromosomal disorders, the parents are

    Answer: Normal with de novo changes in offspring

    Explanation: In most cases, chromosomal disorders result from de novo changes (parents are normal and risk of recurrence in siblings is low), with translocation Down syndrome being an important exception. ---

  45. Q45. Fertilization of a gamete with an extra chromosome (n+1) by a normal gamete produces

    Answer: Trisomic zygote (2n+1)

    Explanation: Fertilization of a gamete containing an extra chromosome (n+1) by a normal gamete (n) results in a trisomic zygote with 2n+1 chromosomes. ---

  46. Q46. Polyploidy (3n, 4n) generally results in

    Answer: Spontaneous abortion

    Explanation: Polyploidy, where chromosome numbers are 3n or 4n (exact multiples of the haploid number other than 2n), generally results in spontaneous abortion. ---

  47. Q47. Which THREE autosomal trisomies were among the first chromosomal abnormalities identified?

    Answer: 13, 18, and 21

    Explanation: Trisomies 21, 18, and 13 were among the first chromosomal abnormalities identified, along with cri du chat syndrome (5p deletion). ---

  48. Q48. The incidence of Down syndrome in women younger than 20 years is approximately

    Answer: 1 in 1550 live births

    Explanation: Down syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in 1550 live births in women younger than 20 years, increasing dramatically to 1 in 25 in women older than 45 years. ---

  49. Q49. The immune dysfunction in Down syndrome primarily affects

    Answer: Mainly T cell function

    Explanation: Patients with Down syndrome demonstrate abnormal immune responses with abnormalities affecting mainly T cell functions, predisposing to infections and thyroid autoimmunity. ---

  50. Q50. In the translocation form of Down syndrome, the translocated chromosome is most commonly inherited from

    Answer: The translocation form

    Explanation: The translocation form is frequently (but not always) familial, with the translocated chromosome inherited from a parent who is typically a carrier of a robertsonian translocation. ---

  51. Q51. Variable expressivity in complex traits can be confused with

    Answer: Penetrance of single genes

    Explanation: Variable expressivity and reduced penetrance of single mutant genes can account for severity variation, making it sometimes difficult to distinguish mendelian from multifactorial disorders. ---

  52. Q52. Assigning a disease to complex multigenic inheritance depends first on

    Answer: Familial clustering and exclusion of mendelian/chromosomal transmission

    Explanation: Attribution to complex multigenic inheritance depends first on familial clustering and the exclusion of mendelian and chromosomal modes of transmission. ---

  53. Q53. Approximately what percentage of newborns have some form of chromosomal abnormality?

    Answer: 1 in 200

    Explanation: It is estimated that 1 in 200 newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality, though many more embryos with abnormalities result in spontaneous abortion. ---

  54. Q54. In HLA-associated diseases, a few HLA alleles can contribute what percentage of the risk in type 1 diabetes?

    Answer: More than 50%

    Explanation: In type 1 diabetes, a few HLA alleles contribute more than 50% of the genetic risk, demonstrating that different polymorphisms vary significantly in their contributions. ---

  55. Q55. Some polymorphisms in immune-mediated inflammatory diseases are

    Answer: Common to multiple diseases of the same type

    Explanation: Some polymorphisms are common to multiple diseases of the same type (e.g., various immune-mediated inflammatory diseases), while others are disease-specific. ---

  56. Q56. Two interstitial breaks with reunion of proximal and distal segments results in

    Answer: Loss of intermediate segment (deletion)

    Explanation: Two interstitial breaks with reunion of proximal and distal segments result in loss of the intermediate segment (deletion), with the isolated fragment lacking a centromere typically being lost. ---

  57. Q57. Sex chromosomal disorders often produce abnormalities that are

    Answer: Subtle and sometimes not detected at birth

    Explanation: Sex chromosomal disorders often produce subtle abnormalities that may not be detected at birth, with infertility being a common manifestation that cannot be diagnosed until adolescence. ---

  58. Q58. Which statement about Down syndrome mosaics is correct?

    Answer: Clinical manifestations are variable and often milder

    Explanation: Mosaic Down syndrome patients (1% of cases) have variable and milder clinical manifestations depending on the proportion of abnormal cells; some mosaics have normal or near-normal intelligence. ---

  59. Q59. Cardiac problems in Down syndrome are responsible for

    Answer: Majority of deaths in infancy and early childhood

    Explanation: Cardiac problems, particularly endocardial cushion defects, are responsible for the majority of deaths in infancy and early childhood in Down syndrome patients. ---

  60. Q60. --- END OF EXAMINATION

    Answer: Lost

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