60 clinical MCQs in Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics. A genetic variant with at least two alleles occurring in at least 1% of the population is. Keny...
Q1. A genetic variant with at least two alleles occurring in at least 1% of the population is termed
Answer: Mutation
Explanation: A polymorphism is defined as a genetic variant that has at least two alleles and occurs in at least 1% of the population, distinguishing it from rare mutations. ---
Q2. In type 1 diabetes, approximately how many genes contribute most significantly to disease risk?
Answer: While 20-30 genes
Explanation: While 20-30 genes are implicated in type 1 diabetes, only 6-7 are most important, with a few HLA alleles contributing more than 50% of the risk. ---
Q3. Which environmental factor commonly unmasks the genetic trait in type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Answer: Obesity and weight gain
Explanation: Type 2 diabetes has features of a complex multigenic disorder where obesity and weight gain often unmask the diabetic genetic trait, demonstrating gene-environment interaction. ---
Q4. Approximately what percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have chromosomal abnormalities?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: Approximately 50% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities, highlighting the importance of chromosomal integrity for fetal development. ---
Q5. The G-banding technique uses which stain to visualize chromosomes?
Answer: Giemsa stain
Explanation: The G-banding (Giemsa banding) technique is widely used to stain chromosomes, producing distinctive patterns of alternating light and dark bands that allow identification of each chromosome. ---
Q6. A chromosome number of 69 (3n) would be classified as
Answer: Since it's a multiple other than 2n, it's also polyploid (specifically triploid).
Explanation: 69 chromosomes (3n) is an exact multiple of the haploid number (n=23), making it euploid. Since it's a multiple other than 2n, it's also polyploid (specifically triploid). ---
Q7. The chief cause of aneuploidy is
Answer: Nondisjunction during meiosis
Explanation: Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes during the first meiotic division or failure of sister chromatids to separate during the second meiotic division is the chief cause of aneuploidy. ---
Q8. Monosomy involving an autosome is
Answer: Incompatible with life
Explanation: Monosomy involving an autosome is incompatible with life, whereas trisomies of certain autosomes and monosomy of sex chromosomes can be compatible with life. ---
Q9. Mosaicism is defined as
Answer: Mosaicism
Explanation: Mosaicism is the presence of two or more populations of cells with different complements of chromosomes in the same individual, usually resulting from postzygotic mitotic nondisjunction. ---
Q10. In cytogenetic notation, "p" denotes
Answer: The short arm of a chromosome
Explanation: In cytogenetic shorthand, "p" (from French "petit") denotes the short arm of a chromosome, while "q" denotes the long arm. ---
Q11. The notation 46,XX,t(2;5)(q31;p14) indicates
Answer: Reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 2 and 5
Explanation: This notation indicates a reciprocal translocation involving the long arm of chromosome 2 at region 3 band 1, and the short arm of chromosome 5 at region 1 band 4. ---
Q12. Robertsonian translocation typically involves
Answer: Two acrocentric chromosomes
Explanation: Robertsonian (centric) fusion is a reciprocal translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes, involving the short arm of one and long arm of the other, forming one large and one very small chromosome. ---
Q13. The most common isochromosome in live births involves
Answer: Long arm of the X chromosome [i(Xq)]
Explanation: The most common isochromosome in live births is i(Xq), involving the long arm of the X chromosome, resulting in monosomy for Xp genes and trisomy for Xq genes. ---
Q14. An isochromosome results from
Answer: Horizontal division of the centromere
Explanation: Isochromosomes result when the centromere divides horizontally (rather than vertically), leading to loss of one arm and duplication of the other, creating two identical arms. ---
Q15. Which statement about chromosomal abnormalities is correct?
Answer: Loss of chromosomal material produces more severe defects than gain
Explanation: In general, loss of chromosomal material produces more severe defects than does gain of chromosomal material, which is why monosomies are typically more severe than trisomies. ---
Q16. Sex chromosome imbalances compared to autosomal imbalances are
Answer: Tolerated much better
Explanation: Imbalances of sex chromosomes (excess or loss) are tolerated much better than similar imbalances of autosomes, often producing subtle abnormalities. ---
Q17. Quantitative trait loci (QTLs) include all of the following EXCEPT
Answer: Hair color
Explanation: QTLs are normal phenotypic characteristics governed by multigenic inheritance showing continuous variation, including hair color, eye color, height, and intelligence. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder. ---
Q18. The most common chromosomal disorder is
Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrom
Explanation: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common chromosomal disorder, occurring with notable frequency compared to other chromosomal abnormalities. ---
Q19. In about 95% of Down syndrome cases, the extra chromosome 21 is of
Answer: Maternal origin
Explanation: In approximately 95% of trisomy 21 cases, the extra chromosome is of maternal origin, resulting from meiotic nondisjunction in the ovum. ---
Q20. Maternal age has the strongest correlation with which type of Down syndrome?
Answer: Meiotic nondisjunction form
Explanation: Maternal age has a strong influence on Down syndrome due to meiotic nondisjunction (95% of cases), with incidence increasing dramatically with advancing maternal age. ---
Q21. The translocation form of Down syndrome accounts for approximately what percentage of cases?
Answer: 25%
Explanation: About 4% of trisomy 21 patients have the extra chromosomal material as a translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21 to chromosome 22 or 14, often familial. ---
Q22. Mosaic Down syndrome accounts for approximately what percentage of cases?
Answer: 10%
Explanation: Approximately 1% of trisomy 21 patients are mosaics with a mixture of 46- and 47-chromosome cells, resulting from mitotic nondisjunction during early embryogenesis. ---
Q23. Which cardiac defect is most common in Down syndrome?
Answer: Endocardial cushion defects
Explanation: Approximately 40% of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease, most commonly endocardial cushion defects including atrial and ventricular septal defects. ---
Q24. Children with trisomy 21 have what increased risk of developing acute leukemia?
Answer: 10- to 20-fold
Explanation: Children with trisomy 21 have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute leukemia, including both acute lymphoblastic and acute myeloid leukemias. ---
Q25. Most Down syndrome patients older than 40 develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of
Answer: Alzheimer disease
Explanation: Virtually all patients with trisomy 21 older than age 40 develop neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease. ---
Q26. The current median age at death for persons with Down syndrome is
Answer: 25 years
Explanation: Improved medical care has increased longevity in Down syndrome from a median of 25 years in 1983 to currently 47 years. ---
Q27. Most Down syndrome patients have an IQ in which range?
Answer: 25 to 50
Explanation: Down syndrome is a leading cause of severe mental retardation; approximately 80% have an IQ of 25 to 50. ---
Q28. Trisomy 18 is also known as
Answer: Edwards syndrome
Explanation: Trisomy 18 is also known as Edwards syndrome, occurring less commonly than trisomy 21 and associated with severe malformations and early death. ---
Q29. Trisomy 13 is also known as
Answer: Patau syndrome
Explanation: Trisomy 13 is also known as Patau syndrome, associated with increased maternal age, severe malformations, and death usually within the first year of life. ---
Q30. The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome was previously thought to represent which two separate disorders?
Answer: DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome
Explanation: The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome encompasses what were previously believed to be two different disorders: DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome. ---
Q31. Which gene on chromosome 22 is suspected to be responsible for DiGeorge syndrome features?
Answer: TBX1
Explanation: The transcription factor gene TBX1 in the 22q11.2 region is suspected to be responsible for DiGeorge syndrome features, as its loss correlates with syndrome occurrence. ---
Q32. Patients with 22q11.2 deletion are at particularly high risk for
Answer: Psychoses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
Explanation: In addition to malformations, patients with 22q11.2 deletion are at particularly high risk for developing psychoses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. ---
Q33. The diagnosis of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome is established by
Answer: Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
Explanation: While diagnosis may be suspected clinically, it can only be established by detection of the deletion using fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH). ---
Q34. Clinical features of 22q11.2 deletion syndrome include all EXCEPT
Answer: Hepatic involvement is not characteristic.
Explanation: Features include cardiac defects, palate abnormalities, facial dysmorphism, developmental delay, thymic hypoplasia, and parathyroid hypoplasia. Hepatic involvement is not characteristic. ---
Q35. When T cell immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia dominate in 22q11.2 deletion, the patient is said to have
Answer: Velocardiofacial syndrome
Explanation: When T cell immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia are dominant features, patients are said to have DiGeorge syndrome, while velocardiofacial syndrome has pronounced dysmorphology and cardiac defects. ---
Q36. According to the common disease-common variant hypothesis, complex disorders occur when
Answer: Many polymorphisms with modest effects are co-inherited
Explanation: Complex multigenic disorders occur when many polymorphisms, each with modest effect and low penetrance, are co-inherited, according to the common disease-common variant hypothesis. ---
Q37. A ring chromosome forms when
Answer: A ring chromosome
Explanation: A ring chromosome is a variant of deletion where, after loss of segments from each end of the chromosome, the remaining arms unite to form a ring structure. ---
Q38. Deletion of which chromosome's short arm causes cri du chat syndrome?
Answer: Chromosome 5
Explanation: Cri du chat syndrome results from partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 (5p-), named for the characteristic cat-like cry of affected infants. ---
Q39. An inversion occurs when
Answer: Two interstitial breaks occur and segment reunites after turnaround
Explanation: Inversions occur when there are two interstitial breaks in a chromosome and the segment between them reunites after rotating 180 degrees (complete turnaround). ---
Q40. A balanced reciprocal translocation involves
Answer: Loss of genetic material
Explanation: Balanced reciprocal translocations involve exchange of chromosomal material between two chromosomes with no net gain or loss of genetic material, potentially causing problems during meiosis. ---
Q41. Which best describes complex multigenic disorders?
Answer: disorders are caused by interactions between variant forms of genes and environmental factors.
Explanation: Complex multigenic (or multifactorial/polygenic) disorders are caused by interactions between variant forms of genes and environmental factors. ---
Q42. Anaphase lag can lead to aneuploidy through
Answer: Failure of pairing followed by random assortment
Explanation: Failure of pairing of homologous chromosomes followed by random assortment (anaphase lag) can lead to aneuploidy, in addition to nondisjunction. ---
Q43. Mosaicism affecting which chromosomes is most common?
Answer: Sex chromosomes
Explanation: Mosaicism affecting sex chromosomes is common, whereas autosomal mosaicism is relatively uncommon. ---
Q44. In most chromosomal disorders, the parents are
Answer: Normal with de novo changes in offspring
Explanation: In most cases, chromosomal disorders result from de novo changes (parents are normal and risk of recurrence in siblings is low), with translocation Down syndrome being an important exception. ---
Q45. Fertilization of a gamete with an extra chromosome (n+1) by a normal gamete produces
Answer: Trisomic zygote (2n+1)
Explanation: Fertilization of a gamete containing an extra chromosome (n+1) by a normal gamete (n) results in a trisomic zygote with 2n+1 chromosomes. ---
Q46. Polyploidy (3n, 4n) generally results in
Answer: Spontaneous abortion
Explanation: Polyploidy, where chromosome numbers are 3n or 4n (exact multiples of the haploid number other than 2n), generally results in spontaneous abortion. ---
Q47. Which THREE autosomal trisomies were among the first chromosomal abnormalities identified?
Answer: 13, 18, and 21
Explanation: Trisomies 21, 18, and 13 were among the first chromosomal abnormalities identified, along with cri du chat syndrome (5p deletion). ---
Q48. The incidence of Down syndrome in women younger than 20 years is approximately
Answer: 1 in 1550 live births
Explanation: Down syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in 1550 live births in women younger than 20 years, increasing dramatically to 1 in 25 in women older than 45 years. ---
Q49. The immune dysfunction in Down syndrome primarily affects
Answer: Mainly T cell function
Explanation: Patients with Down syndrome demonstrate abnormal immune responses with abnormalities affecting mainly T cell functions, predisposing to infections and thyroid autoimmunity. ---
Q50. In the translocation form of Down syndrome, the translocated chromosome is most commonly inherited from
Answer: The translocation form
Explanation: The translocation form is frequently (but not always) familial, with the translocated chromosome inherited from a parent who is typically a carrier of a robertsonian translocation. ---
Q51. Variable expressivity in complex traits can be confused with
Answer: Penetrance of single genes
Explanation: Variable expressivity and reduced penetrance of single mutant genes can account for severity variation, making it sometimes difficult to distinguish mendelian from multifactorial disorders. ---
Q52. Assigning a disease to complex multigenic inheritance depends first on
Answer: Familial clustering and exclusion of mendelian/chromosomal transmission
Explanation: Attribution to complex multigenic inheritance depends first on familial clustering and the exclusion of mendelian and chromosomal modes of transmission. ---
Q53. Approximately what percentage of newborns have some form of chromosomal abnormality?
Answer: 1 in 200
Explanation: It is estimated that 1 in 200 newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality, though many more embryos with abnormalities result in spontaneous abortion. ---
Q54. In HLA-associated diseases, a few HLA alleles can contribute what percentage of the risk in type 1 diabetes?
Answer: More than 50%
Explanation: In type 1 diabetes, a few HLA alleles contribute more than 50% of the genetic risk, demonstrating that different polymorphisms vary significantly in their contributions. ---
Q55. Some polymorphisms in immune-mediated inflammatory diseases are
Answer: Common to multiple diseases of the same type
Explanation: Some polymorphisms are common to multiple diseases of the same type (e.g., various immune-mediated inflammatory diseases), while others are disease-specific. ---
Q56. Two interstitial breaks with reunion of proximal and distal segments results in
Answer: Loss of intermediate segment (deletion)
Explanation: Two interstitial breaks with reunion of proximal and distal segments result in loss of the intermediate segment (deletion), with the isolated fragment lacking a centromere typically being lost. ---
Q57. Sex chromosomal disorders often produce abnormalities that are
Answer: Subtle and sometimes not detected at birth
Explanation: Sex chromosomal disorders often produce subtle abnormalities that may not be detected at birth, with infertility being a common manifestation that cannot be diagnosed until adolescence. ---
Q58. Which statement about Down syndrome mosaics is correct?
Answer: Clinical manifestations are variable and often milder
Explanation: Mosaic Down syndrome patients (1% of cases) have variable and milder clinical manifestations depending on the proportion of abnormal cells; some mosaics have normal or near-normal intelligence. ---
Q59. Cardiac problems in Down syndrome are responsible for
Answer: Majority of deaths in infancy and early childhood
Explanation: Cardiac problems, particularly endocardial cushion defects, are responsible for the majority of deaths in infancy and early childhood in Down syndrome patients. ---
Q60. --- END OF EXAMINATION
Answer: Lost