30 clinical MCQs in Blood Transfusion. What percentage of normal adult haematopoietic bone marrow is fat?
Q1. What percentage of normal adult haematopoietic bone marrow is fat?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: Normal adult marrow is 50% fat and 50% active haematopoietic tissue.
Q2. In iron deficiency anemia, which is typically decreased?
Answer: Serum iron
Explanation: Serum iron, ferritin, and transferrin saturation all decrease; TIBC actually increases in iron deficiency.
Q3. Which is NOT a characteristic finding in megaloblastic anemia?
Answer: Microcytosis
Explanation: Megaloblastic anemia is macrocytic; microcytosis belongs to iron deficiency.
Q4. Which hemoglobin variant protects against severe malaria?
Answer: HbS
Explanation: Sickle cell trait (HbAS) impairs parasite survival inside RBCs, conferring protection against severe P. falciparum malaria.
Q5. Characteristic chromosomal abnormality in CML?
Answer: t(9;22)
Explanation: The Philadelphia chromosome — creates the BCR-ABL fusion gene driving uncontrolled myeloid proliferation.
Q6. Most common cause of macrocytic anemia in alcoholics?
Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation: Alcoholics have poor diet and impaired folate absorption; alcohol also directly interferes with folate metabolism.
Q7. In beta-thalassemia major, which hemoglobin is typically increased?
Answer: HbF
Explanation: Beta chains are absent/reduced, so the body compensates by maintaining fetal hemoglobin (HbF) production.
Q8. Most common cause of acquired hemolytic anemia?
Answer: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Explanation: Autoantibodies against RBC surface antigens is the leading acquired cause of hemolysis.
Q9. Which is NOT a typical feature of myelodysplastic syndromes?
Answer: Hyperproliferative bone marrow
Explanation: MDS features a hypercellular but ineffective marrow — cells are made but die early.
Q10. What is the Philadelphia chromosome?
Answer: t(9;22)
Explanation: t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome, the hallmark of CML.
Q11. Most common presenting symptom in acute leukemia?
Answer: Fatigue
Explanation: Anemia from bone marrow failure causes fatigue as the most common initial complaint.
Q12. Which is NOT a risk factor for myelodysplastic syndrome?
Answer: Obesity
Explanation: Obesity has no established link to MDS; all others are well-recognized risk factors.
Q13. Most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency in Western countries?
Answer: Pernicious anemia
Explanation: Autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells eliminates intrinsic factor, essential for B12 absorption.
Q14. Which is NOT a typical feature of sickle cell disease?
Answer: Microcytosis
Explanation: Sickle cell disease produces normocytic anemia; microcytosis is not a feature unless co-existing iron deficiency is present.
Q15. Most common cause of hereditary hemochromatosis?
Answer: HFE gene mutation
Explanation: The C282Y mutation in the HFE gene accounts for the vast majority of hereditary hemochromatosis cases.
Q16. Most common cause of acquired hemolytic anemia? (repeated)
Answer: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Explanation: Same as Q8.
Q17. Which best describes the Philadelphia chromosome?
Answer: t(9;22)
Explanation: Same as Q5 and Q10.
Q18. Primary growth factor for megakaryocyte differentiation and platelet production?
Answer: Thrombopoietin
Explanation: Thrombopoietin (TPO) is produced mainly by the liver and is the key regulator of platelet production.
Q19. Which is NOT a typical feature of vitamin B12 deficiency?
Answer: Microcytosis
Explanation: B12 deficiency causes macrocytosis, not microcytosis; neurological symptoms are unique to B12 vs folate deficiency.
Q20. Most common cause of hereditary spherocytosis?
Answer: Ankyrin deficiency
Explanation: Ankyrin defects are the most common cause, disrupting the link between spectrin and the lipid bilayer.
Q21. Characteristic immunophenotype of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
Answer: CD5+, CD23+
Explanation: CLL is uniquely CD5+ and CD23+, distinguishing it from mantle cell lymphoma (CD5+ but CD23−).
Q22. Which is NOT a typical feature of polycythemia vera?
Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: PV typically causes thrombocytosis (increased platelets), not thrombocytopenia.
Q23. Most common cause of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation: Over 50% of warm AIHA cases have no identifiable cause.
Q24. Most common cause of hereditary hemochromatosis? (repeated)
Answer: HFE gene mutation
Explanation: Same as Q15.
Q25. Which is NOT a typical feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
Answer: Positive direct antiglobulin test
Explanation: PNH hemolysis is complement-mediated, not antibody-mediated — so the DAT is characteristically NEGATIVE.
Q26. Primary mechanism of action of imatinib in CML?
Answer: Inhibition of BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
Explanation: Imatinib is a targeted TKI that blocks the constitutively active BCR-ABL kinase, the driver of CML.
Q27. Characteristic immunophenotype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML)?
Answer: CD34+, CD117+, MPO+
Explanation: AML blasts express myeloid markers: CD117 (c-kit), CD34 (stem cell), and myeloperoxidase (MPO).
Q28. Which is NOT a typical feature of beta-thalassemia major?
Answer: Increased HbA2
Explanation: In beta-thal major, HbF is markedly elevated; HbA2 elevation is the hallmark of beta-thal MINOR (trait), not major.
Q29. Most common cause of acquired factor VIII inhibitors?
Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation: Most cases of acquired hemophilia A occur without an identifiable underlying cause.
Q30. Characteristic cytogenetic abnormality in follicular lymphoma?
Answer: t(14;18)
Explanation: This translocation juxtaposes BCL-2 next to the IGH locus, causing overexpression of BCL-2 and resistance to apoptosis.