30 clinical MCQs in Blood Transfusion. What percentage of normal adult haematopoietic bone marrow is fat?. Kenya, Africa and global revision.
Q1. What percentage of normal adult haematopoietic bone marrow is fat?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: Normal adult marrow is 50% fat and 50% active haematopoietic tissue. ---
Q2. In iron deficiency anemia, which is typically decreased?
Answer: Serum iron
Explanation: Serum iron, ferritin, and transferrin saturation all decrease; TIBC actually increases in iron deficiency. ---
Q3. Which is NOT a characteristic finding in megaloblastic anemia?
Answer: Microcytosis
Explanation: Megaloblastic anemia is macrocytic; microcytosis belongs to iron deficiency. ---
Q4. Which hemoglobin variant protects against severe malaria?
Answer: HbS
Explanation: Sickle cell trait (HbAS) impairs parasite survival inside RBCs, conferring protection against severe P. falciparum malaria. ---
Q5. Characteristic chromosomal abnormality in CML?
Answer: t(9;22)
Explanation: The Philadelphia chromosome — creates the BCR-ABL fusion gene driving uncontrolled myeloid proliferation. ---
Q6. Most common cause of macrocytic anemia in alcoholics?
Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation: Alcoholics have poor diet and impaired folate absorption; alcohol also directly interferes with folate metabolism. ---
Q7. In beta-thalassemia major, which hemoglobin is typically increased?
Answer: HbF
Explanation: Beta chains are absent/reduced, so the body compensates by maintaining fetal hemoglobin (HbF) production. ---
Q8. Most common cause of acquired hemolytic anemia?
Answer: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Explanation: Autoantibodies against RBC surface antigens is the leading acquired cause of hemolysis. ---
Q9. Which is NOT a typical feature of myelodysplastic syndromes?
Answer: Hyperproliferative bone marrow
Explanation: MDS features a hypercellular but ineffective marrow — cells are made but die early. ---
Q10. What is the Philadelphia chromosome?
Answer: t(9;22)
Explanation: t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome, the hallmark of CML. ---
Q11. Most common presenting symptom in acute leukemia?
Answer: Fatigue
Explanation: Anemia from bone marrow failure causes fatigue as the most common initial complaint. ---
Q12. Which is NOT a risk factor for myelodysplastic syndrome?
Answer: Obesity
Explanation: Obesity has no established link to MDS; all others are well-recognized risk factors. ---
Q13. Most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency in Western countries?
Answer: Pernicious anemia
Explanation: Autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells eliminates intrinsic factor, essential for B12 absorption. ---
Q14. Which is NOT a typical feature of sickle cell disease?
Answer: Microcytosis
Explanation: Sickle cell disease produces normocytic anemia; microcytosis is not a feature unless co-existing iron deficiency is present. ---
Q15. Most common cause of hereditary hemochromatosis?
Answer: HFE gene mutation
Explanation: The C282Y mutation in the HFE gene accounts for the vast majority of hereditary hemochromatosis cases. ---
Q16. Most common cause of acquired hemolytic anemia? (repeated)
Answer: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Explanation: Same as Q8. ---
Q17. Which best describes the Philadelphia chromosome?
Answer: t(9;22)
Explanation: Same as Q5 and Q10. ---
Q18. Primary growth factor for megakaryocyte differentiation and platelet production?
Answer: Thrombopoietin
Explanation: Thrombopoietin (TPO) is produced mainly by the liver and is the key regulator of platelet production. ---
Q19. Which is NOT a typical feature of vitamin B12 deficiency?
Answer: Microcytosis
Explanation: B12 deficiency causes macrocytosis, not microcytosis; neurological symptoms are unique to B12 vs folate deficiency. ---
Q20. Most common cause of hereditary spherocytosis?
Answer: Ankyrin deficiency
Explanation: Ankyrin defects are the most common cause, disrupting the link between spectrin and the lipid bilayer. ---
Q21. Characteristic immunophenotype of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
Answer: CD5+, CD23+
Explanation: CLL is uniquely CD5+ and CD23+, distinguishing it from mantle cell lymphoma (CD5+ but CD23−). ---
Q22. Which is NOT a typical feature of polycythemia vera?
Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: PV typically causes thrombocytosis (increased platelets), not thrombocytopenia. ---
Q23. Most common cause of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation: Over 50% of warm AIHA cases have no identifiable cause. ---
Q24. Most common cause of hereditary hemochromatosis? (repeated)
Answer: HFE gene mutation
Explanation: Same as Q15. ---
Q25. Which is NOT a typical feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
Answer: Positive direct antiglobulin test
Explanation: PNH hemolysis is complement-mediated, not antibody-mediated — so the DAT is characteristically NEGATIVE. ---
Q26. Primary mechanism of action of imatinib in CML?
Answer: Inhibition of BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
Explanation: Imatinib is a targeted TKI that blocks the constitutively active BCR-ABL kinase, the driver of CML. ---
Q27. Characteristic immunophenotype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML)?
Answer: CD34+, CD117+, MPO+
Explanation: AML blasts express myeloid markers: CD117 (c-kit), CD34 (stem cell), and myeloperoxidase (MPO). ---
Q28. Which is NOT a typical feature of beta-thalassemia major?
Answer: Increased HbA2
Explanation: In beta-thal major, HbF is markedly elevated; HbA2 elevation is the hallmark of beta-thal MINOR (trait), not major. ---
Q29. Most common cause of acquired factor VIII inhibitors?
Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation: Most cases of acquired hemophilia A occur without an identifiable underlying cause. ---
Q30. Characteristic cytogenetic abnormality in follicular lymphoma?
Answer: t(14;18)
Explanation: This translocation juxtaposes BCL-2 next to the IGH locus, causing overexpression of BCL-2 and resistance to apoptosis.