Haematopathology MCQs: Blood Disorders, Lymphoma & Anemia

30 clinical MCQs in Hematopathology. Leukemoid reactions are almost always a sign of?. Kenya, Africa and global revision.

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Leukemoid reactions are almost always a sign of?

    Answer: Septicaemia

    Explanation: Leukemoid reactions — very high WBC counts with immature cells — are most commonly a reactive response to severe infection/sepsis. ---

  2. Q2. True statement about staging of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?

    Answer: CT scan used in imaging

    Explanation: CT scanning is standard for staging NHL; Burkitt's is a B-cell lymphoma, and stages have very different prognoses. ---

  3. Q3. Which increases dietary iron uptake by the alimentary canal?

    Answer: Vitamin C in fruit juice

    Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) reduces Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺, the absorbable form, enhancing non-haem iron absorption. ---

  4. Q4. Abnormality of nuclear segmentation in neutrophils?

    Answer: Pelger-Huet

    Explanation: Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by hyposegmented (bilobed "pince-nez") neutrophil nuclei. ---

  5. Q5. Burkitt's lymphoma chromosomal translocations involve?

    Answer: c-myc

    Explanation: Burkitt's lymphoma involves t(8;14) placing c-myc under IGH control, causing uncontrolled cell proliferation. ---

  6. Q6. Elderly woman with corkscrew hair follicles, perifollicular hemorrhages, gum bleeding — deficiency of?

    Answer: Vitamin C

    Explanation: Perifollicular hemorrhage and corkscrew hairs are classic signs of scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency), as collagen synthesis is impaired. ---

  7. Q7. Which red cell abnormality is most indicative of haemolysis?

    Answer: Schistocytes

    Explanation: Schistocytes (fragmented RBCs) are the hallmark of mechanical hemolysis, seen in microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and TTP/HUS. ---

  8. Q8. Markedly decreased blood level most characteristic of intravascular haemolysis?

    Answer: Haptoglobin

    Explanation: Free haemoglobin released in intravascular haemolysis binds and depletes haptoglobin rapidly. ---

  9. Q9. Dashed curve on osmotic fragility test represents?

    Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

    Explanation: Spherocytes have less surface area relative to volume, making them lyse at higher NaCl concentrations — a right-shifted curve. ---

  10. Q10. Patient on primaquine develops bite cells and Heinz bodies — diagnosis?

    Answer: G6PD deficiency

    Explanation: G6PD-deficient RBCs cannot neutralize oxidative stress from primaquine; denatured Hb forms Heinz bodies and macrophages bite them out. ---

  11. Q11. Test to detect haemoglobin S (sickle cell trait)?

    Answer: Metabisulfite test

    Explanation: Sodium metabisulfite deoxygenates blood, inducing sickling of HbS-containing cells — a simple screening test. ---

  12. Q12. Valine replacing glutamic acid at position 6 of beta chain is associated with?

    Answer: Sickle cell anaemia

    Explanation: This single amino acid substitution (Glu→Val) causes HbS polymerization under deoxygenation, the basis of sickle cell disease. ---

  13. Q13. 67-year-old with elevated PSA, myelocytes on blood film, nucleated RBCs, no teardrop cells — best diagnosis for anaemia?

    Answer: Myelopathic anaemia

    Explanation: Metastatic prostate cancer to bone marrow displaces normal haematopoiesis, releasing immature cells (leukoerythroblastic picture). ---

  14. Q14. Megaloblasts result from impaired synthesis of?

    Answer: DNA

    Explanation: B12 and folate are required for thymidine synthesis; without them, DNA replication is impaired, causing nuclear-cytoplasmic asynchrony. ---

  15. Q15. TIBC is inversely proportional to serum levels of?

    Answer: Ferritin

    Explanation: When iron stores (ferritin) are high, TIBC decreases; when stores are low, TIBC increases. ---

  16. Q16. MCV 70 fL, MCH 22 pg, MCHC 34% — most consistent diagnosis?

    Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

    Explanation: Low MCV + low MCH = microcytic hypochromic anaemia, classic for iron deficiency. ---

  17. Q17. Patient on sulphonamide with isolated neutropenia due to antineutrophil antibodies — expected bone marrow finding?

    Answer: Hyperplasia of myeloid series

    Explanation: The marrow compensates by ramping up production of neutrophils in response to their peripheral destruction. ---

  18. Q18. Parasitic infections (trichinosis, schistosomiasis, strongyloidiasis) cause elevated numbers of?

    Answer: Eosinophils

    Explanation: Tissue-invasive parasites trigger Th2 immune responses and IgE production, driving eosinophilia. ---

  19. Q19. Reactive T immunoblasts in enlarged lymph nodes during viral infection are found in which region?

    Answer: Paracortex

    Explanation: The paracortex is the T-cell zone of the lymph node; it expands during viral infections. ---

  20. Q20. Low-grade NHL with cells similar to CLL?

    Answer: Small lymphocytic lymphoma

    Explanation: SLL and CLL are essentially the same disease — SLL is the tissue/lymph node form, CLL is the blood/marrow form. ---

  21. Q21. Lacunar cells are variants of Reed-Sternberg cells found specifically in?

    Answer: Nodular sclerosis HD

    Explanation: Lacunar cells are RS cell variants pathognomonic of the nodular sclerosis subtype. ---

  22. Q22. 28-year-old male with Auer rods in blast cells making up 38% of marrow — diagnosis?

    Answer: Acute promyelocytic leukemia

    Explanation: Auer rods in granular blasts + DIC is classic for APL with t(15;17). ---

  23. Q23. 4-year-old with TdT+, PAS+, MPO− blasts — cells originated from?

    Answer: Lymphoblasts

    Explanation: TdT is a marker of immature lymphoid cells; MPO negativity rules out myeloid origin. ---

  24. Q24. Hairy cell leukemia suspected — which stain is useful?

    Answer: Acid phosphatase

    Explanation: Hairy cells are TRAP-positive (tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase) — a classic diagnostic marker. ---

  25. Q25. 72-year-old with nontender lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, leukocyte count 72,000 — diagnosis?

    Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

    Explanation: Elderly patient, massive lymphocytosis, nontender nodes, splenomegaly = classic CLL presentation. ---

  26. Q26. Morphological classification of anaemias is based on?

    Answer: RBC size

    Explanation: Morphological classification uses MCV: microcytic (<80 fL), normocytic (80–100 fL), or macrocytic ( 100 fL). ---

  27. Q27. Which factor may NOT cause an increase in RBC production?

    Answer: Low altitude

    Explanation: Low altitude means higher oxygen availability, reducing EPO stimulus — no need to increase RBC production. ---

  28. Q28. What is affected in HbS?

    Answer: Solubility

    Explanation: HbS polymerizes (becomes insoluble) when deoxygenated due to the hydrophobic valine substitution. ---

  29. Q29. Anisocytosis means?

    Answer: Increased variation in cell size

    Explanation: Aniso = unequal; cytosis = cells. Poikilocytosis refers to variation in shape. ---

  30. Q30. Peak age of onset of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in childhood?

    Answer: 3–5 years

    Explanation: ALL has a peak incidence between ages 2–5, making it the most common childhood malignancy.

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