Practice 7 MCQs on Male reproductive system — Past Paper Questions & Answers. Review answers, explanations and exam-focused clinical concepts. Free note...
Q1. a 27-year-old man has complained of continuing 'jock itch' for the past year. On physical examination there are small whitish scaling patches on the skin of his perineum. A scraping from the lesion shows Trichophyton rubrum organisms. Which of the following lesions is he most likely to develop?
Answer: Lichen simplex chronicus
Explanation: The chronic rubbing and scratching from this dermatophyte infection can result in epidermal hyperplasia and chronic inflammation. ---
Q2. A 35-year-old healthy man desires a permanent form of contraception. He has a vasectomy performed with no complications of the surgery. He is advised of the potential future complications of this procedure. Which of the following is most likely to result from prior vasectomy?
Answer: Sperm granuloma
Explanation: Also called vasitis nodosa, a sperm granuloma results from a foreign body granulomatous reaction to extravasated sperm at the vasectomy site. The granulomatous reaction is typically not florid. ---
Q3. A 21-year-old sexually active man is notified by the health department that his last sexual contact 3 weeks prior has a positive serologic test for syphilis. He goes to see his physician that day. Which of the following findings in this man is most likely to be indicative of his acquisition of this infection?
Answer: Penile chancre
Explanation: This would be the typical finding for primary syphilis from recent infection by Treponema pallidum. ---
Q4. A healthy 17-year-old adolescent has a routine check of his health status. On physical examination pearly penile papules are noted at the edge of the glans penis. He is noted to be circumcised. There is no erythema or urethral discharge. He is not sexually active. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Normal variation
Explanation: This is really a normal variation, but some patients may be concerned when they notice that other men do not have them. Patients do notice such minor things, and it is helpful to know the range of potential variations in body parts. ---
Q5. A 33-year-old G3 P2 woman gives birth at term following an uncomplicated pregnancy to a male infant. On physical examination he has an abnormal opening of the urethra onto the ventral surface of the penis for a distance of 0.3 cm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Hypospadias
Explanation: This is a congenital anomaly. Infection is a common complication, and partial urethral stricture may lead to urinary tract obstruction. ---
Q6. A 45-year-old man complains of dysuria for the past week. On physical examination he is uncircumcised and has erythema and edema of the glans penis, with inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to be associated with these findings?
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: He has balanitis with paraphimosis, and staphylococcal or streptococcal infections are most likely to be present. ---
Q7. A 35-year-old man has a routine check of his health status. On physical examination the prepuce cannot be fully retracted from the glans of his penis. No other abnormalities are noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Phimosis
Explanation: Inflammation with scarring may prevent full retraction. There is an increased risk for phimosis and for balanitis in uncircumcised males. ---