30 clinical MCQs in Blood Transfusion. Which coagulation factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?
Q1. Which coagulation factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?
Answer: Factor VIII
Explanation: Hemophilia A = Factor VIII deficiency; Hemophilia B = Factor IX deficiency (Christmas disease).
Q2. Most common cause of prolonged PT with normal aPTT?
Answer: Factor VII deficiency
Explanation: Factor VII is only in the extrinsic pathway (measured by PT); its deficiency prolongs PT while leaving aPTT normal.
Q3. PT 45s, aPTT 65s (both prolonged) — most likely cause?
Answer: Liver disease
Explanation: Liver disease impairs synthesis of multiple coagulation factors, prolonging both pathways.
Q4. Blood product for thrombocytopenia with active bleeding?
Answer: Platelet concentrate
Explanation: Thrombocytopenia = low platelets; replacing platelets directly addresses the bleeding cause.
Q5. The crossmatch test primarily detects?
Answer: All of the above
Explanation: The crossmatch detects any antibody-antigen reaction between donor RBCs and recipient serum.
Q6. Emergency transfusion, blood type unknown — give?
Answer: O negative RBCs
Explanation: O negative is the universal donor — no A, B, or Rh antigens to trigger reactions.
Q7. Cryoprecipitate contains high concentrations of all EXCEPT?
Answer: Factor IX
Explanation: Cryo contains: fibrinogen, Factor VIII, Factor XIII, vWF, and fibronectin. Factor IX is NOT in cryoprecipitate.
Q8. Positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) indicates?
Answer: Antibodies bound to patient's RBCs
Explanation: DAT detects IgG or complement already coating the patient's own RBCs in vivo.
Q9. Most serious immediate complication of blood transfusion?
Answer: Acute hemolytic reaction
Explanation: ABO-incompatible transfusion causes massive intravascular hemolysis, DIC, renal failure — rapidly fatal.
Q10. Most sensitive lab test for detecting DIC?
Answer: D-dimer
Explanation: D-dimer is highly sensitive for DIC — elevated whenever clot formation and lysis are simultaneously occurring.
Q11. Von Willebrand disease is characterized by?
Answer: Prolonged bleeding time and aPTT
Explanation: vWF is needed for platelet adhesion (bleeding time) and carries Factor VIII (aPTT).
Q12. Mechanism of action of warfarin?
Answer: Vitamin K antagonism
Explanation: Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase, blocking activation of factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Q13. Patient on heparin — monitored using?
Answer: aPTT
Explanation: Heparin potentiates antithrombin III; therapeutic target is 1.5–2.5× normal aPTT.
Q14. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) typically occurs?
Answer: 5–10 days after starting heparin
Explanation: HIT is immune-mediated via antibodies against heparin-PF4 complexes.
Q15. Most important blood group system after ABO and Rh?
Answer: Kell
Explanation: Kell antigens are highly immunogenic and clinically the next most significant after ABO and Rh.
Q16. Massive transfusion is defined as?
Answer: >100% volume in 24h
Explanation: Replacement of the entire blood volume (~5L) within 24 hours, or 10 units of RBCs.
Q17. FFP:Platelets:RBCs ratio in massive transfusion protocol?
Answer: 1:1:1
Explanation: Evidence-based damage control resuscitation uses a balanced 1:1:1 ratio.
Q18. Antithrombin III deficiency predisposes to?
Answer: Thrombotic disorders
Explanation: ATIII is a natural anticoagulant; its deficiency causes thrombophilia.
Q19. Most common inherited bleeding disorder?
Answer: Von Willebrand disease
Explanation: vWD affects ~1% of the population — the most common inherited bleeding disorder worldwide.
Q20. Factor V Leiden mutation causes?
Answer: Resistance to activated protein C
Explanation: Factor V Leiden makes Factor Va resistant to cleavage by activated Protein C, causing thrombophilia.
Q21. TRALI is most commonly caused by?
Answer: Donor antibodies against recipient leukocytes
Explanation: Donor anti-HLA or anti-HNA antibodies activate recipient neutrophils in the lung, causing non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 6 hours.
Q22. Shelf life of platelet concentrates at room temperature?
Answer: 5 days
Explanation: Stored at 20–24°C with agitation; limited to 5 days due to bacterial contamination risk.
Q23. Which factor is NOT part of the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
Answer: Factor VII
Explanation: Factor VII belongs exclusively to the extrinsic pathway. Intrinsic: XII, XI, IX, VIII.
Q24. Protein S functions as a cofactor for?
Answer: Protein C
Explanation: Protein S enhances activated Protein C's ability to degrade Factors Va and VIIIa.
Q25. Most common cause of acquired coagulation disorder?
Answer: Liver disease
Explanation: The liver synthesizes nearly all coagulation factors — liver disease is the most common acquired coagulopathy globally.
Q26. Leukoreduction of blood products primarily prevents?
Answer: Febrile non-hemolytic reactions
Explanation: Leukoreduction removes donor WBCs whose cytokines/antigens cause fever — the most common transfusion reaction.
Q27. Normal platelet count range?
Answer: 150,000–450,000/μL
Q28. Which condition requires irradiated blood products?
Answer: All of the above
Explanation: Irradiation destroys donor T lymphocytes to prevent transfusion-associated GvHD in at-risk patients.
Q29. The mixing study corrects in which condition?
Answer: Hemophilia A
Explanation: Mixing corrects factor deficiencies but NOT when inhibitors (antibodies against factors) are present.
Q30. Post-transfusion purpura typically occurs?
Answer: 5–10 days post-transfusion
Explanation: Alloantibodies (usually anti-HPA-1a) destroy both donor and patient's own platelets 5–10 days post-transfusion.