39 clinical MCQs in General Pathology. A 45-year-old woman with VHL syndrome develops multiple tumors. Which molecular mechanism. Kenya, Africa and glob...
Q1. A 45-year-old woman with VHL syndrome develops multiple tumors. Which molecular mechanism explains the angiogenic phenotype in her renal cell carcinomas?
Answer: Failure of HIF-1α ubiquitination in normoxic conditions
Explanation: In VHL syndrome, mutated VHL protein cannot bind and ubiquitinate HIF-1α even in normoxic conditions, leading to constitutive HIF-1α stabilization and VEGF transcription, promoting angiogenesis. ---
Q2. What is the maximum diameter a tumor can reach without developing its own vascular supply?
Answer: 1-2 mm
Explanation: Tumors cannot enlarge beyond 1-2 mm in diameter without angiogenesis due to the maximal diffusion distance for oxygen, nutrients, and waste from blood vessels. ---
Q3. A researcher studying tumor angiogenesis finds that proteolytic cleavage of plasminogen produces a potent angiogenesis inhibitor. Which molecule is formed?
Answer: Angiostatin
Explanation: Angiostatin is produced by proteolytic cleavage of plasminogen. Endostatin comes from collagen cleavage, and vasculostatin from transthyretin cleavage. ---
Q4. Which cell adhesion molecule acts as both an intercellular glue and transmits antigrowth signals by sequestering β-catenin?
Answer: E-cadherin
Explanation: E-cadherin functions as an intercellular adhesion molecule and transmits antigrowth signals by sequestering β-catenin. Its function is lost in almost all epithelial cancers. ---
Q5. A patient with hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) develops multiple colonic carcinomas. Which genetic finding characterizes this syndrome?
Answer: Mismatch repair defects with microsatellite instability
Explanation: HNPCC is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes, leading to microsatellite instability (MSI) characterized by changes in length of short tandem repeating sequences throughout the genome. ---
Q6. Normal p53 induces synthesis of which angiogenesis inhibitor?
Answer: Thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1)
Explanation: Normal p53 induces synthesis of TSP-1, the prototypical angiogenesis inhibitor, maintaining vascular quiescence in early tumor growth. ---
Q7. Which enzyme is responsible for cleaving type IV collagen in basement membranes and releasing VEGF from ECM-sequestered pools?
Answer: MMP-9
Explanation: MMP-9 is a gelatinase that cleaves type IV collagen of epithelial and vascular basement membranes and stimulates release of VEGF from ECM-sequestered pools. ---
Q8. A patient with xeroderma pigmentosum develops multiple skin cancers after minimal sun exposure. Which DNA repair pathway is defective?
Answer: Nucleotide excision repair
Explanation: Xeroderma pigmentosum involves defects in nucleotide excision repair, leading to inability to repair UV-induced pyrimidine dimers and increased risk of skin cancers. ---
Q9. Which transcription factors suppress E-cadherin expression, promoting tumor cell invasion?
Answer: SNAIL and TWIST
Explanation: SNAIL and TWIST transcription factors suppress E-cadherin expression, leading to loss of intercellular adhesion and promoting tumor cell invasion and metastasis. ---
Q10. In the Warburg effect, how many ATP molecules are produced per glucose molecule through aerobic glycolysis?
Explanation: Aerobic glycolysis produces only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule, compared to 36 ATP from mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation, yet supports rapid tumor growth. ---
Q11. Which imaging modality exploits the Warburg effect to visualize tumors using 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose?
Answer: PET scan
Explanation: PET scanning uses 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose, a nonmetabolizable glucose derivative, to visualize the increased glucose uptake characteristic of tumors exhibiting the Warburg effect. ---
Q12. What is the dual effect of neovascularization on tumor growth?
Answer: Perfusion supplies nutrients AND newly formed endothelial cells secrete growth factors
Explanation: Neovascularization has a dual effect: perfusion supplies oxygen and nutrients, while newly formed endothelial cells stimulate tumor growth by secreting growth factors like IGF, PDGF, and GM-CSF. ---
Q13. A breast cancer patient's tumor shows high expression of CXCR4 and CCR7 receptors. To which organs is this tumor most likely to metastasize based on chemokine ligand expression?
Answer: Organs expressing CXCL12 and CCL21
Explanation: Breast cancer cells expressing CXCR4 and CCR7 metastasize to organs highly expressing their ligands (CXCL12 and CCL21), demonstrating organ tropism through chemokine receptor-ligand interactions. ---
Q14. Which DNA repair genes are mutated in familial breast cancers and are involved in homologous recombination?
Answer: BRCA1 and BRCA2
Explanation: BRCA1 and BRCA2 are involved in DNA repair through homologous recombination and are mutated in familial breast cancers, increasing cancer susceptibility. ---
Q15. In hypoxic conditions within a tumor, what prevents HIF-1α degradation?
Answer: Lack of oxygen prevents VHL recognition of HIF-1α
Explanation: In hypoxia, lack of oxygen prevents VHL from recognizing and binding HIF-1α, preventing its ubiquitination and degradation, allowing HIF-1α to translocate to the nucleus and activate VEGF transcription. ---
Q16. Which of the following best describes the first step in ECM invasion by tumor cells?
Answer: Loosening of tumor cell-to-cell contacts
Explanation: The first step in the metastatic cascade is loosening of tumor cell-to-cell contacts, primarily through loss of E-cadherin function, before cells can invade the ECM. ---
Q17. What happens to normal epithelial cells when they lose adhesion to the ECM?
Answer: They undergo apoptosis
Explanation: Loss of adhesion in normal cells leads to induction of apoptosis, while tumor cells are resistant to this form of cell death, allowing them to survive during metastasis. ---
Q18. Which syndrome is characterized by hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation due to defects in homologous recombination DNA repair?
Answer: Ataxia-telangiectasia
Explanation: Ataxia-telangiectasia involves defects in homologous recombination DNA repair and is characterized by hypersensitivity to DNA-damaging agents like ionizing radiation. ---
Q19. In the multistep carcinogenesis model of colon cancer, which genetic alteration typically occurs FIRST?
Answer: Inactivation of APC
Explanation: In colon carcinogenesis, inactivation of the APC tumor suppressor gene typically occurs first, followed by RAS activation, then loss of chromosome 18q, and finally loss of TP53. ---
Q20. What is the primary reason skeletal muscles are rarely sites of metastasis despite being well vascularized?
Answer: Nonpermissive microenvironment
Explanation: Although well vascularized, skeletal muscles provide a nonpermissive microenvironment for tumor cell growth, demonstrating that vascularization alone is insufficient for metastasis. ---
Q21. Which growth factor/cytokine is secreted by tumor cells to promote their own locomotion in an autocrine manner?
Answer: Autocrine motility factors
Explanation: Tumor cells secrete autocrine motility factors that act on themselves to potentiate and direct migration through degraded basement membranes and matrix zones during invasion. ---
Q22. What is the role of tumor-associated fibroblasts in the tumor microenvironment?
Answer: They exhibit altered gene expression that can promote tumorigenesis
Explanation: Tumor-associated fibroblasts exhibit altered expression of genes encoding ECM molecules, proteases, protease inhibitors, and growth factors, actively participating in creating a microenvironment that can promote tumorigenesis. ---
Q23. In normoxic conditions, what happens to HIF-1α?
Answer: It is bound by VHL, ubiquitinated, and destroyed
Explanation: In normoxic settings, VHL protein binds to HIF-1α, leading to its ubiquitination and subsequent destruction, preventing inappropriate angiogenesis activation. ---
Q24. Which enzyme cleaves collagen to produce endostatin, a potent angiogenesis inhibitor?
Answer: Proteases acting on collagen
Explanation: Endostatin is produced by proteolytic cleavage of collagen by various proteases, serving as one of the potent angiogenesis inhibitors that balance pro-angiogenic signals. ---
Q25. What characterizes tumor vasculature compared to normal vessels?
Answer: Leaky, dilated with haphazard connections
Explanation: Tumor vasculature is abnormal, characterized by leaky, dilated vessels with haphazard patterns of connection, unlike the organized structure of normal blood vessels. ---
Q26. Which mechanism do aggregated tumor cells in the bloodstream use to avoid immune destruction?
Answer: Adhesion to leukocytes and platelets forming emboli
Explanation: Tumor cells form emboli by aggregating and adhering to circulating leukocytes and platelets, affording them protection from antitumor host effector cells during circulation. ---
Q27. What is the significance of the "angiogenic switch" in tumor development?
Answer: It terminates the stage of vascular quiescence allowing tumor progression
Explanation: The angiogenic switch terminates the stage of vascular quiescence, allowing tumors that were small or in situ for years to progress by acquiring blood supply through increased angiogenic factors and/or loss of inhibitors. ---
Q28. Which chronic inflammatory condition of the gastrointestinal tract increases cancer risk through persistent cell proliferation and DNA damage?
Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation: Ulcerative colitis increases cancer risk through chronic inflammation causing compensatory proliferation and DNA damage. ---
Q29. How do inflammatory cells like neutrophils contribute to carcinogenesis?
Answer: By secreting reactive oxygen species causing DNA damage
Explanation: Neutrophils and other inflammatory cells contribute to carcinogenesis by secreting reactive oxygen species (ROS), which inflict DNA damage in rapidly dividing cells during chronic inflammation. ---
Q30. Which enzyme's increased expression in colon cancers has led to research on its inhibitors for cancer prevention?
Answer: Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)
Explanation: COX-2 expression is increased in colon cancers and other tumors. It converts arachidonic acid to prostaglandins and is induced by inflammatory stimuli, making COX-2 inhibitors a target for cancer prevention research. ---
Q31. What finding challenges the traditional theory that metastasis results from random mutation accumulation in tumor subclones?
Answer: Some primary tumors have gene expression signatures similar to metastases before clinical metastasis
Explanation: Gene profiling studies show some breast cancers have metastasis-like gene expression signatures in primary tumors before clinical metastasis, suggesting metastatic potential may be an early intrinsic property. ---
Q32. Which paracrine factor produced by stromal cells binds to receptors on tumor cells to promote motility?
Answer: Hepatocyte growth factor/scatter factor (HGF/SCF)
Explanation: HGF/SCF is a paracrine effector of cell motility produced by stromal cells. It binds to receptors on tumor cells and is elevated at advancing edges of invasive tumors. ---
Q33. Benign tumors of the breast show little activity of which enzyme compared to their malignant counterparts?
Answer: Type IV collagenase (MMP activity)
Explanation: Benign tumors show little type IV collagenase activity, whereas their malignant counterparts overexpress this enzyme, which is crucial for basement membrane degradation. ---
Q34. What is the consequence of MMP-mediated cleavage of basement membrane proteins like collagen IV and laminin?
Answer: Generation of novel binding sites that stimulate tumor cell migration
Explanation: MMP-2 and MMP-9 cleavage of collagen IV and laminin generates novel sites that bind to receptors on tumor cells and stimulate migration. ---
Q35. Which oncogenes and tumor suppressors stimulate glucose uptake and favor aerobic glycolysis in cancer cells?
Answer: TP53, PTEN, and Akt
Explanation: TP53, PTEN, and Akt stimulate glucose uptake by affecting glucose transporter proteins and favor aerobic glycolysis (the Warburg effect). ---
Q36. In the invasion-metastasis cascade, which step must occur before intravasation?
Answer: Local invasion
Explanation: The invasion-metastasis cascade follows a specific sequence: local invasion must occur before tumor cells can intravasate into blood and lymph vessels. ---
Q37. What is the primary function of integrins on normal epithelial cells in relation to the basement membrane?
Answer: Act as polarized receptors maintaining cells in resting, differentiated state
Explanation: Normal epithelial cells have integrins at their basal surface for basement membrane components that help maintain cells in a resting, differentiated state. ---
Q38. Which cleavage products of matrix components have chemotactic activity for tumor cells?
Answer: Collagen and laminin fragments
Explanation: Cleavage products of collagen and laminin, along with certain growth factors like IGF-I and IGF-II, have chemotactic activity that directs tumor cell migration. ---
Q39. What typically happens to the levels of metalloproteinase inhibitors in malignant tumors?
Answer: They are reduced, tilting balance toward tissue degradation
Explanation: In malignant tumors, levels of metalloproteinase inhibitors are typically reduced, tilting the balance toward tissue degradation and facilitating invasion.