Pathology Papers: Scanned Revision Notes & Past Questions

Question 1

The following are high risk Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) subtypes with strong association with cervical cancer:

Accepted Answer

6 and 11 — HPV types 16 and 18 are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers.

Question 2

Vulval Condyloma acuminatum as seen in Immunosuppressive states are associated with the following Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) sub types:

Accepted Answer

6 and 11 — HPV types 6 and 11 are low-risk types commonly associated with anogenital warts (condyloma acuminatum).

Question 3

A 33-year-old female presents to you with dyspareunia and heavy painful menstrual bleeding she also reports difficulties in conceiving. Laparoscopy reveals multiple small red brownish lesions on the ovaries, peritoneal cavity some of which have coalesced to form blood filled cysts. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Endometriosis — The symptoms of dyspareunia, painful heavy bleeding, infertility, and the laparoscopic findings of red-brown lesions and "chocolate cysts" on ovaries are classic for endometriosis.

Question 4

Daughters of women who received Diethylstilbestrol (DES) therapy during pregnancy are most likely to develop:

Accepted Answer

Sarcoma botryoides — In utero exposure to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a known risk factor for clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix in female offspring.

Question 5

A 70-year-old female presents with chronic vulvar area irritation and severe itching. On examination, the vulva shows areas of leukoplakia with thick lethally vulval skin. The diagnosis is most likely:

Accepted Answer

Lichen Sclerosis — Chronic irritation and itching leading to thickened, leathery (likely typo for 'leathery' instead of 'lethally') skin and leukoplakia is characteristic of lichen simplex chronicus, a reactive epithelial thickening.

Question 6

The Commonest site of implantation for Tubal gestation is:

Accepted Answer

Fimbria — The ampulla is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies within the fallopian tube.

Question 7

ONE of the following is the most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding

Accepted Answer

Endometriosis — Anovulatory cycles are the most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding, leading to irregular shedding of the endometrium.

Question 8

ONE of the following is the most common malignant germ cell tumour

Accepted Answer

Serous cystadenocarcinoma — Dysgerminoma is the most common malignant germ cell tumor of the ovary.

Question 9

ONE of the following is the most common site of endometriosis

Accepted Answer

Ovary — The ovaries are the most common site for endometrial implants.

Question 10

ONE of the following statements about vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) IS TRUE:

Accepted Answer

Squamous epithelium of the vulva shows dysplasia — Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is characterized by dysplastic changes within the squamous epithelium of the vulva.

Question 11

ONE of the following is the most likely complication of submucosal fibroids of the uterus.

Accepted Answer

Torsion — Submucosal fibroids commonly cause heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) due to their proximity to the endometrial cavity.

Question 12

A vaginal infection that presents with cheesy, curdled milk -like discharge is:

Accepted Answer

Chlamydiasis — Vaginal candidiasis (yeast infection) typically presents with a thick, white, "cottage cheese-like" or "curdled milk-like" discharge.

Question 13

A 54-year-old male develops sharp chest pain and shortness of breath suddenly while in the hospital recovering from a surgical repair of a fractured ankle. While being examined, he goes into cardiac arrest and cannot be resuscitated. Of the following, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Cerebral infarct — A sudden onset of chest pain, shortness of breath, and cardiac arrest in a post-surgical patient (especially orthopedic surgery) is highly suggestive of a pulmonary thromboembolism.

Question 14

ONE of the following complications is likely to occur in patients whose temporal artery biopsies show thickening and focal granulomatous inflammation:

Accepted Answer

Haemoptysis — The description refers to Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis), which can lead to ophthalmic artery occlusion and irreversible blindness.

Question 15

What is the most common histological change seen within 24 hours following a myocardial infarction?

Accepted Answer

Disintegration of dead myofibers — Within 24 hours of a myocardial infarction, the primary histological change is coagulative necrosis, characterized by the loss of nuclei and striations, and disintegration of dead myofibers.

Question 16

What is the most common cause of pure right sided heart failure?

Accepted Answer

Left sided heart failure — Cor pulmonale, which is right ventricular hypertrophy and dilation due to pulmonary hypertension, is the most common cause of pure right-sided heart failure.

Question 17

Which of the following substances accumulates in the artherosclerotic blood vessel?

Accepted Answer

Fatty Acids — Cholesterol esters are the primary lipid component that accumulates within macrophages (foam cells) in atherosclerotic plaques.

Question 18

'Heart failure Cells' Found in the lungs of heart failure patients are morphologically

Accepted Answer

Neutrophils accumulated due to inflammation — Heart failure cells are hemosiderin-laden macrophages found in the alveoli, indicative of chronic pulmonary congestion.

Question 19

Which of the listed below is LEAST commonly affected in Rheumatic heart disease?

Accepted Answer

Mitral Valve — The pulmonary valve is the least commonly affected valve in rheumatic heart disease, which predominantly affects the mitral and aortic valves.

Question 20

Full question stem here?

Accepted Answer

first choice — This is a placeholder for the first question on the page, which is not visible.

Question 21

Which of the following regarding emphysema is FALSE?

Accepted Answer

Centrilobular emphysema predominantly affects upper 2/3 of the lung. — Loss of alveolar walls in emphysema leads to decreased pulmonary resistance due to loss of radial traction and increased compliance.

Question 22

Which of the following statements regarding lung abscesses is FALSE?

Accepted Answer

They can occur secondary to bronchogenic carcinoma. — While Streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus are common, lung abscesses are often polymicrobial, involving anaerobic bacteria as well.

Question 23

One of the following statements is FALSE regarding autosomal dominant diseases;

Accepted Answer

Show reduced penetrance — Autosomal dominant diseases typically manifest in heterozygotes (one affected allele), not homozygotes, although homozygosity can lead to more severe forms.

Question 24

One of the following statements is FALSE regarding autosomal recessive diseases;

Accepted Answer

Generations not skipped — Autosomal recessive diseases often show skipped generations because carriers are unaffected.

Question 25

Gaucher disease is characterized by;

Accepted Answer

Gangliosides are buildup — Gaucher disease is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by a deficiency of glucocerebrosidase, leading to the accumulation of glucocerebroside.

Question 26

Patients with Edwards syndrome have Trisomy;

Accepted Answer

XYY ✅ Answer: B — Edwards syndrome is caused by Trisomy 18.

Question 27

In Klinefelter's syndrome, the common karyotype is;

Accepted Answer

45, X0 — Klinefelter's syndrome is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males, most commonly 47, XXY.

Question 28

Which of the following best describes 'Degree of resemblance to tissue of origin'?

Accepted Answer

Granulation tissue — Differentiation refers to the extent to which neoplastic cells resemble their normal counterparts, both morphologically and functionally.

Question 29

Which of the following is characterized histologically by proliferation of fibroblast and angiogenesis?

Accepted Answer

Granulation tissue — Granulation tissue is new connective tissue and microscopic blood vessels that form on the surfaces of a wound during the healing process, characterized by fibroblast proliferation and angiogenesis.

Question 30

Which of the following is a vasoactive amine?

Accepted Answer

Granulation tissue — Histamine is a potent vasoactive amine released by mast cells, basophils, and platelets, causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

Question 31

Which of the following best describes 'Complete loss of resemblance to tissue of origin'?

Accepted Answer

Metaplasia — Anaplasia refers to the complete lack of differentiation in malignant cells, characterized by pleomorphism, abnormal nuclear morphology, and atypical mitoses.

Question 32

Which of the following is an 'Increase in number of cells in organ or tissue'?

Accepted Answer

Granulation tissue — Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, leading to an increase in its volume.

Question 33

One of the following set of cells represent stable cells;

Accepted Answer

Fibroblasts, Endothelial cells — Stable cells (or quiescent cells) are those that are normally in G0 phase but can re-enter the cell cycle and proliferate in response to appropriate stimuli; fibroblasts and endothelial cells are examples.

Question 34

One of the following best describes metaplasia;

Accepted Answer

Change from one adult cell type to another adult type — Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one differentiated adult cell type is replaced by another differentiated adult cell type, often in response to chronic irritation.

Question 35

One of the following statements is true;

Accepted Answer

Malignant tumours are always capsulated — Anaplasia, characterized by cellular pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, and abnormal mitoses, is a key feature of malignancy, indicating a lack of differentiation.

Question 36

One of the following statement is FALSE;

Accepted Answer

Thrombi in saphenous vein are a common source of systemic embolism — Thrombi in the saphenous vein (superficial thrombophlebitis) rarely embolize; deep vein thrombi are the common source of pulmonary emboli, not systemic emboli.

Question 37

One of the following statements best defines a sarcoma;

Accepted Answer

Malignancy arising from mesenchymal tissue — Sarcomas are malignant tumors that arise from mesenchymal tissues (e.g., connective tissue, bone, muscle, fat), in contrast to carcinomas which arise from epithelial tissues.

Question 38

One of the following best defines a neoplasm;

Accepted Answer

A malignant tumour — A neoplasm is an abnormal mass of tissue resulting from an uncontrolled and progressive growth, which can be either benign or malignant.

Question 39

One of the following DOES NOT define carcinoma in - situ;

Accepted Answer

Intra - epithelial cancer — Carcinoma in situ refers to a localized group of malignant cells that have not yet invaded the basement membrane, making it intra-epithelial, pre-invasive, and non-invasive. Focal metaplasia is a reversible change in cell type.

Question 40

One of the following is NOT an example of peripheral tolerance;

Accepted Answer

Clonal deletion in the thymus — Clonal deletion in the thymus is a mechanism of central tolerance, occurring in primary lymphoid organs, whereas anergy, suppression by T-cells, death of self-reactive lymphocytes in the periphery, and antigen sequestration are mechanisms of peripheral tolerance.

Question 41

The following virus is associated with Nasopharyngeal carcinoma;

Accepted Answer

Human papilloma virus. — Epstein Barr virus (EBV) is strongly associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

Question 42

One of the following lung cancers has the best prognosis;

Accepted Answer

Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma — Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (now often classified as adenocarcinoma in situ or minimally invasive adenocarcinoma) generally has a better prognosis than other types, especially if localized.

Question 43

One of the following statements is TRUE concerning panacinar emphysema;

Accepted Answer

It is associated with α1 anti-trypsin deficiency — Panacinar emphysema is strongly associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and typically affects the lower lobes, affecting the entire acinus.

Question 44

One of the following is NOT a type of twin placentation;

Accepted Answer

Dichorionic, diamniotic

Question 45

Deep gastric pits is a feature of:

Accepted Answer

Oesophagus — The pyloric region of the stomach is characterized by deep gastric pits and long, branched tubular glands.

Question 46

Abundant lymphoid tissue in lamina propria is a feature of:

Accepted Answer

The Esophagus — The appendix is known for its abundant lymphoid tissue, forming part of the gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).

Question 47

Pseudomembranous colitis has the following features except

Accepted Answer

Adherent fibrinous exudates on the mucosa — Pseudomembranous colitis is characterized by a disruption of the normal colonic microbiota, not a normal one.

Question 48

Crohns' disease is characterized by the following main gross feature

Accepted Answer

Cobble stone appearance with skip lesions — Crohn's disease typically presents with transmural inflammation, skip lesions, and a cobblestone appearance of the mucosa.

Question 49

True of duodenal ulcer except

Accepted Answer

Aggravated by hunger — Duodenal ulcers are generally more common than gastric ulcers.

Question 50

H.pylori infection causes injury through the following except

Accepted Answer

Production of urease — H. pylori infection causes injury through inflammation and disruption of mucosal defenses, but it does not directly induce increased production of gastric acid.

Pathology Papers: Scanned Revision Notes & Past Questions

Questions, Answers & Explanations