45 clinical MCQs in Respiratory System Pathology. An 8-year-old boy had meconium ileus at birth, elevated sweat chloride, and recurrent Pseu
Q1. An 8-year-old boy had meconium ileus at birth, elevated sweat chloride, and recurrent Pseudomonas pneumonias. He is at greatest risk for which pulmonary abnormality?
Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation: CF causes chronic airway inflammation and obstruction leading to bronchiectasis. Progressive loss of pulmonary vasculature leads to pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale.
Q2. A 70-year-old nursing home woman with Alzheimer's develops fever and coughs up yellowish sputum. CXR shows left lower lobe infiltrate. Sputum shows neutrophils and gram-positive diplococci. Most likely organism?
Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: Gram-positive diplococci + lobar pneumonia in a community/nursing home setting = Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
Q3. An 11-year-old girl has 2 weeks of dyspnea. CXR shows hilar lymphadenopathy and a 1 cm peripheral right middle lobe nodule. No infiltrates. Sputum shows normal flora. Most likely condition?
Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
Explanation: Peripheral nodule + hilar lymphadenopathy in a child = Ghon complex of primary TB. Enlarged nodes may compress airways causing dyspnea. Most primary infections are asymptomatic.
Q4. On postoperative day 11 after a radical prostatectomy, a 70-year-old man suddenly becomes extremely dyspneic, diaphoretic with chest pain after walking to the bathroom. Most likely pulmonary complication?
Answer: Thromboembolus
Explanation: Prolonged immobilization after surgery → DVT → pulmonary thromboembolism upon ambulation. Classic sudden-onset presentation.
Q5. A 50-year-old Swedish non-smoking seamstress has dyspnea, fever, hilar lymphadenopathy, reticulonodular infiltrates, anergy on skin testing, and non-caseating interstitial granulomas on biopsy. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation: Non-caseating granulomas + hilar lymphadenopathy + anergy = sarcoidosis. Corticosteroids are the treatment but infection must be excluded first.
Q6. A 43-year-old woman has 8 years of worsening dyspnea, hyperresonance on percussion, increased lung volumes on CXR, and decreased attenuation in lower lobes on CT. Most likely lab finding?
Answer: Decreased serum alpha-1-antitrypsin
Explanation: Emphysema in a non-smoker affecting lower lobes = alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. Loss of anti-protease activity leads to panlobular emphysema by the 5th decade.
Q7. A 55-year-old 50-pack-year smoker has hemoptysis. Sputum cytology shows atypical cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and orange-pink cytoplasm. Serum calcium is 11.3 mg/dL. Most likely CXR finding?
Answer: Large hilar mass
Explanation: Squamous cell carcinoma is central in location, arising in large bronchi, causing a hilar mass. Hypercalcemia is a paraneoplastic feature of squamous cell carcinoma.
Q8. A 58-year-old non-smoker aspirates gastric contents during intubation. Over 10 days he develops a cough, fever, and a 4 cm right lung mass with an air-fluid level. Sputum shows mixed flora. Most likely condition?
Answer: Lung abscess
Explanation: Aspiration + air-fluid level in the right lung = lung abscess. The right mainstem bronchus is straighter, conducting aspirated material more readily. Mixed flora is typical.
Q9. A 66-year-old woman has a week of non-productive cough, mild fever, and bilateral interstitial infiltrates on CXR. Sputum shows normal flora and few neutrophils. She recovers fully in 2 weeks. Most likely organism?
Answer: Influenza A virus
Explanation: Bilateral interstitial infiltrates + non-productive cough + few neutrophils + full recovery = viral pneumonia. Influenza A is the most common cause. T lymphocytes dominate the interstitial inflammation.
Q10. A 58-year-old smoker has 2 months of non-productive cough and blood-streaked sputum. CXR shows a 5 cm left hilar mass. Sputum cytology shows small hyperchromatic cells with scant cytoplasm. Most likely predisposing factor?
Answer: Smoking
Explanation: Small cell anaplastic carcinoma is virtually always seen in smokers. It arises centrally and spreads aggressively. Smoking remains the most frequent cause of lung cancer overall.
Q11. A 41-year-old man with weight loss, low CD4 count of 79, and Cryptosporidium in stool has bilateral patchy infiltrates. BAL yields pink foamy exudate with little inflammation. Most likely additional finding on GMS stain?
Answer: Multiple cysts with GMS stain
Explanation: Pink foamy exudate + severely low CD4 = Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. GMS stain reveals the characteristic cysts. PCP is the most common AIDS-defining opportunistic lung infection.
Q12. A 64-year-old 90-pack-year smoker has had productive cough with copious mucoid sputum for more than 3 months per year for 5 years. He dies of septicemia and brain abscess. Autopsy shows mucus gland hypertrophy. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Chronic bronchitis
Explanation: Chronic bronchitis is defined as productive cough for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years. Mucus gland hypertrophy is the pathologic hallmark. Smoking and air pollution are the key causes.
Q13. A 66-year-old retired construction worker has dyspnea, bilateral diaphragmatic pleural plaques with calcification on CXR, diffuse interstitial disease, and ferruginous bodies on sputum cytology. Low FVC with normal FEV1/FVC. Most likely exposure?
Answer: Asbestos crystals
Explanation: Pleural plaques with calcification + ferruginous bodies (iron-encrusted asbestos fibers) + restrictive pattern = asbestosis. Building construction is a classic occupational exposure.
Q14. A 58-year-old smoker with obesity, BP 165/110, HgbA1C of 10%, and worsening orthopnea has bilateral lower lobe rales and infiltrates on CXR with a prominent left heart border. Most likely pulmonary problem?
Answer: Pulmonary edema
Explanation: Hypertension + diabetes + obesity + smoking = multiple risk factors for left heart failure. Pulmonary edema results from elevated left-sided filling pressures causing fluid in the alveoli.
Q15. A 47-year-old man has lost 6 kg, has hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain, and bilateral upper lobe infiltrates with cavitation. Sputum shows epithelioid cells with necrotic debris. Most likely additional histologic finding?
Answer: Acid fast bacilli
Explanation: Cavitating upper lobe infiltrates + epithelioid granulomas with caseous necrosis + constitutional symptoms = tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) are the expected finding.
Q16. A 20-year-old man collapses while jogging with a minor hand abrasion. He rapidly develops dyspnea, absent right breath sounds, and mediastinal shift to the left. Thoracentesis yields a rush of air. Most likely condition?
Answer: Distal acinar emphysema
Explanation: Spontaneous pneumothorax in a young man with no trauma = distal acinar (paraseptal) emphysema with subpleural bullae. Pulmonary function tests are normal between episodes.
Q17. A 30-year-old man is intubated after severe hypotension from a vehicular accident. Despite increasing PEEP and 100% FiO2, saturations worsen. He dies. Autopsy shows hyaline membranes, thickened interstitium, and macrophages. Most likely pulmonary complication?
Answer: Diffuse alveolar damage
Explanation: Hyaline membranes + thickened interstitium after severe hypotension = diffuse alveolar damage (ARDS). It is the final common pathway following severe lung injury from shock, sepsis, or oxygen toxicity.
Q18. A 51-year-old non-smoker has a slight cough for a week. Lung fields are clear. CXR shows a subpleural 2 cm coin lesion in the right upper lobe. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Granuloma
Explanation: Solitary peripheral coin lesion in a non-smoker = most likely a granuloma from prior subclinical TB or fungal infection. Differential also includes adenocarcinoma and hamartoma.
Q19. A 61-year-old man has a cough and right lower lobe consolidation. Antibiotic therapy over a month fails to resolve it. BAL yields atypical cells and alveolar macrophages. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Adenocarcinoma-in-situ
Explanation: Consolidation that does not respond to antibiotics + atypical cells on BAL = adenocarcinoma-in-situ (formerly bronchioloalveolar carcinoma). It can spread in a pneumonia-like pattern and occurs in non-smokers.
Q20. A 25-year-old man receives a stem cell transplant for AML. Three weeks later he develops dyspnea, fever, and interstitial infiltrates. BAL cytology shows enlarged cells with prominent intranuclear inclusions. Most likely organism?
Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation: Enlarged cells with prominent intranuclear inclusions = CMV cytopathic effect. CMV pneumonitis is a classic complication in immunocompromised transplant patients before engraftment.
Q21. A 54-year-old woman has a month of fever, dyspnea, and weight loss. CXR shows reticulonodular pattern and hilar lymphadenopathy. Transbronchial biopsy shows no organisms, no viral inclusions, no atypical cells. Most likely disease?
Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation: Non-caseating granulomas with no identifiable organism + hilar lymphadenopathy = sarcoidosis. The absence of organisms on thorough workup is key before starting corticosteroids.
Q22. A 59-year-old 42-year smoker has blood-streaked sputum, back pain, a right hilar mass, peripheral lung nodules, and vertebral bone scan uptake. Sputum shows small hyperchromatic cells with scant cytoplasm. Most likely lab finding?
Answer: Serum sodium of 113 mmol/L
Explanation: Small cell carcinoma produces ADH (SIADH), causing severe hyponatremia. Small cell is the lung cancer most associated with paraneoplastic syndromes due to its neuroendocrine origin.
Q23. A 40-year-old woman has a week of high fever, productive yellowish cough, diffuse rales, patchy infiltrates in all lung fields, and a 4 cm rounded consolidation with an air-fluid level in the left upper lobe. Most likely organism?
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Bronchopneumonia complicated by an abscess with air-fluid level = Staphylococcus aureus. More virulent bacteria cause liquefactive necrosis resulting in abscess formation.
Q24. At autopsy, a 60-year-old man has a peripheral 7 cm golden-yellow consolidated area distal to a 3 cm hilar mass. Microscopically, alveoli are filled with foamy macrophages. Most likely underlying condition?
Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation: Central hilar mass obstructing a large bronchus → distal lipid (endogenous) pneumonia with foamy macrophages = squamous cell carcinoma. Most squamous cell carcinomas are centrally located.
Q25. A 12-year-old girl has acute dyspnea and wheezing, coughs up a thick mucus plug, and has 11% eosinophils on CBC and eosinophils in sputum. Similar episodes have occurred for 4 years. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Bronchial asthma
Explanation: Recurrent episodic wheezing + mucus plugs + peripheral and sputum eosinophilia in a child = bronchial asthma. Atopic asthma is initiated by type I hypersensitivity to allergens.
Q26. A 41-year-old non-smoking woman has recurrent fever, non-productive cough, and dyspnea that resolved on vacation but returned when she came home to care for her canaries. Fine nodular infiltrates on CXR. Most likely inflammatory mechanism?
Answer: Antigen-antibody complex formation
Explanation: Bird feather dust inhalation → extrinsic allergic alveolitis (hypersensitivity pneumonitis) via type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity. Can progress to type IV if chronic.
Q27. A 63-year-old woman has 5 years of worsening dyspnea, hyperresonance, expiratory wheezes, increased lung volumes, and FEV1/FVC less than 70%. Which inhaled substance increases neutrophil elastase and most likely caused her disease?
Answer: Nicotine
Explanation: Nicotine is chemotactic for neutrophils and activates the alternative complement pathway. Cumulative neutrophil elastase activity over years destroys lung parenchyma, causing smoking-related emphysema.
Q28. A 29-year-old woman develops fever, dyspnea, non-productive cough, loss of smell, and ground-glass opacities on CXR. A single-stranded RNA virus is recovered. Three months later she still has myalgias, dyspnea, fatigue, and memory loss. Most likely virus?
Answer: Coronavirus
Explanation: Loss of smell + ground-glass opacities + single-stranded RNA virus + persistent symptoms beyond 3 months = COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2). "Long COVID" affects at least a third of infected persons.
Q29. A 44-year-old non-smoking woman has fever and cough. CXR shows a 6 cm right upper lobe infiltrate. Antibiotics fail to clear it; one month later a 3 cm peripheral mass is seen. Most likely neoplasm?
Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation: Peripheral lung mass in a non-smoker that presented as a persistent "pneumonia" = adenocarcinoma. Peripheral lung cancers (adenocarcinoma, large cell) are less strongly associated with smoking than central ones.
Q30. A 70-year-old bedridden woman (post-CVA, 5 weeks) has sudden dyspnea then 2 days later develops left-sided pleuritic chest pain. Imaging shows a wedge-shaped hemorrhagic area at the left lower lobe pleura. Most likely finding in her pulmonary arteries?
Answer: Thromboembolism
Explanation: Immobility → DVT → pulmonary thromboembolism → wedge-shaped hemorrhagic infarct at the pleural base. Pleuritic chest pain indicates pleural involvement by the infarct.
Q31. A 38-year-old woman has a non-productive cough for 4 days, low-grade fever, patchy interstitial infiltrates, mixed flora on gram stain, and an elevated cold agglutinin titer. She responds to erythromycin. Most likely organism?
Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation: Elevated cold agglutinin titer + interstitial infiltrates + response to erythromycin = Mycoplasma pneumoniae (primary atypical pneumonia). Not cultured by routine bacterial methods.
Q32. A 23-year-old primigravida with elevated HgbA1C delivers at 33 weeks. The infant is in severe respiratory distress requiring intubation within an hour. What pharmacologic therapy given to the mother could have helped prevent this?
Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation: Maternal diabetes impedes fetal lung maturation and surfactant production. Antenatal corticosteroids (hydrocortisone/betamethasone) accelerate type II pneumocyte maturation and surfactant production in the fetus.
Q33. A 51-year-old woman has 5 months of progressive lower leg swelling. CXR shows bilateral pleural effusions and prominent right heart border. AST, ALT, and LDH are elevated; CK is normal. Most likely underlying disease?
Answer: Recurrent thromboembolism
Explanation: Recurrent pulmonary emboli → pulmonary hypertension → right heart failure → hepatic passive congestion → elevated transaminases and LDH but normal CK (no myocardial ischemia).
Q34. A cardiac transplant patient one month post-op develops fever, cough, and left lower lobe abscess on CT. Sputum shows normal flora. He fails antibiotics for 6 months and develops multiple brain abscesses. Most likely organism?
Answer: Nocardia braziliensis
Explanation: Pulmonary abscess + brain dissemination in an immunocompromised patient not responding to standard antibiotics = Nocardia braziliensis. Brain involvement is a characteristic feature of disseminated nocardiosis.
Q35. A previously healthy 5-year-old girl has fever, expiratory wheezes, and suddenly worsening dyspnea. WBC is 14,480. Emergency bronchoscopy reveals bronchi plugged by exudates. Most likely organism?
Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation: High WBC + bronchi plugged by fibrin-rich neutrophilic exudates in a child after descending laryngotracheobronchitis = Haemophilus influenzae. Can cause bronchopneumonia with airway obstruction.
Q36. A study reviews adults with sudden severe dyspnea, absent breath sounds over an entire lung, and complete pulmonary atelectasis on CXR. They are afebrile. Most likely cause?
Answer: Penetrating chest trauma
Explanation: Penetrating chest trauma → pneumothorax → complete lung collapse (atelectasis). Absent breath sounds over the entire lung with sudden onset in an afebrile patient points to pneumothorax from trauma.
Q37. A newborn male at 36 weeks gestation develops severe respiratory distress within an hour, requiring mechanical ventilation. He dies within 2 days. Autopsy shows extensive pink hyaline membranes. Most likely maternal condition that increased this risk?
Answer: Gestational diabetes
Explanation: Gestational diabetes → fetal hyperinsulinism → impaired type II pneumocyte development → insufficient surfactant → hyaline membrane disease. Diabetes impedes fetal lung maturation even at 36 weeks.
Q38. A 10-year-old boy develops neck pain and halitosis 4 days after acute pharyngitis. CT shows a peritonsillar abscess growing anaerobic flora. Most likely aerobic organism also cultured?
Answer: Group A Streptococcus
Explanation: Peritonsillar abscess is a classic complication of streptococcal (Group A Strep) pharyngitis in children. The abscess contains mixed flora including anaerobes and the original streptococcal pathogen.
Q39. A 65-year-old non-smoker has an 8 kg weight loss, malaise, non-tender supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, and multiple solid nodules 1–3 cm throughout all lung fields on CXR. No fever or cough. Hgb 11.6. Most likely pathologic process?
Answer: Metastatic carcinoma
Explanation: Multiple bilateral solid pulmonary nodules + weight loss + supraclavicular lymphadenopathy in a non-smoker = metastatic carcinoma. Multiple nodules favor metastases over a primary lung tumor.
Q40. A 43-year-old non-smoking woman has 8 years of progressive dyspnea, hyperresonance, decreased breath sounds, and increased lucency on CXR. Serum alpha-1-antitrypsin is 18 mg/dL. Which portion of the lung is most likely affected?
Answer: Alveolar duct
Explanation: AAT deficiency causes panacinar emphysema, destroying the distal acinus beyond the respiratory bronchiole, including the alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs. Lower lobes are more severely affected.
Q41. A baby is delivered at 28 weeks after sudden placental abruption. The infant requires intubation and ventilation. CXR shows bilateral opacification the next day and the baby does not improve. Most likely histopathologic finding?
Answer: Minimal alveolar saccular development
Explanation: Extreme prematurity (28 weeks) → lungs lack sufficient alveolar development and surfactant production → hyaline membrane disease. The primary finding is minimal alveolar saccular development.
Q42. A 41-year-old woman has episodic dyspnea with expiratory wheezes, elevated serum IgE, peripheral eosinophilia, sputum eosinophils, perihilar bronchiectasis on CXR, and detectable serum galactomannan. Most likely pathologic finding in her bronchi?
Answer: Non-invasive aspergillosis
Explanation: Elevated IgE + eosinophilia + galactomannan (Aspergillus cell wall component) + bronchiectasis + asthma exacerbations = allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). The fungus colonizes bronchi non-invasively.
Q43. A male infant born at 30 weeks requires intubation immediately after birth. Two months later he is taken off the ventilator but still oxygenates poorly. Most likely disease developed?
Answer: Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Explanation: Prematurity + prolonged mechanical ventilation with high FiO2 → bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). Positive pressure ventilation, oxygen toxicity, and prolonged intubation all contribute to this chronic lung injury.
Q44. A 6-year-old has sudden dyspnea, absent right breath sounds, and is afebrile. ABG shows pO2 95, pCO2 25, pH 7.55. After 100% FiO2, the ABG is unchanged. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Foreign body aspiration
Explanation: Complete bronchial obstruction from a foreign body → V/Q mismatch shunt defect → 100% oxygen does not improve pO2 because no ventilation reaches the perfused lung. Respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation.
Q45. A 60-year-old woman develops multi-organ failure after septic pneumonia. Cultures are now clear, but she requires increasing ventilatory pressures and her CXR shows progressive opacification of all lung fields. Most likely pathologic process?
Answer: Diffuse alveolar damage
Explanation: Progressive respiratory failure despite cleared infection + increasing opacification = diffuse alveolar damage (ARDS). It is the final common pathway for severe lung injury from sepsis, producing hyaline membranes and restrictive physiology.