50 clinical MCQs in Hematopathology. What is the chromosomal location of the RB gene?. Kenya, Africa and global revision.
Q1. What is the chromosomal location of the RB gene?
Answer: 13q14
Explanation: The RB gene, the first tumor suppressor gene to be discovered, is located at chromosomal locus 13q14. ---
Q2. According to Knudson's two-hit hypothesis, how many mutations are required to develop retinoblastoma?
Answer: Two hits (mutations) are required
Explanation: Knudson's two-hit hypothesis states that two hits are required to develop retinoblastoma - both copies of the RB tumor suppressor gene must be dysfunctional. ---
Q3. In familial retinoblastoma, what is the origin of the first hit?
Answer: One mutation is inherited (germline), second is somatic
Explanation: In familial cases, one hit (mutation) is inherited in the germline and the second hit develops when the normal Rb gene is lost by somatic mutation in retinoblasts. ---
Q4. What is the critical cell cycle checkpoint controlled by the RB gene?
Answer: G1/S transition
Explanation: The Rb gene exerts antiproliferative effects by controlling the G1/S transition of the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering S phase inappropriately. ---
Q5. In its active tumor suppressor form, what is the phosphorylation state of RB protein?
Answer: Hypophosphorylated
Explanation: In its active form, Rb is hypophosphorylated and binds to E2F transcription factor, preventing transcription of genes required for DNA replication like cyclin E. ---
Q6. What transcription factor does hypophosphorylated RB bind to?
Answer: E2F
Explanation: Hypophosphorylated Rb binds to E2F transcription factor, preventing E2F from activating transcription of genes required for cell cycle progression and DNA replication. ---
Q7. What percentage of tumors demonstrate biallelic loss of TP53?
Answer: 70%
Explanation: Approximately 70% of tumors demonstrate biallelic loss of TP53, highlighting its critical role as a tumor suppressor and "guardian of the genome." ---
Q8. Which syndrome is associated with germline mutation in one TP53 allele?
Answer: Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Explanation: Li-Fraumeni syndrome involves inheritance of one defective TP53 allele in the germline, with the second defect occurring in somatic cells, predisposing to multiple cancers. ---
Q9. What is p53 commonly referred to as due to its critical role in genomic stability?
Answer: Guardian of the genome
Explanation: p53 is called the "guardian of the genome" because it serves as the central monitor of cellular stress and can initiate responses to maintain genomic integrity. ---
Q10. Which stresses can activate p53 protein?
Answer: Anoxia, oncogene signaling, and DNA damage
Explanation: p53 is the central monitor of stress in the cell and can be activated by anoxia, inappropriate oncogene signaling, or DNA damage. ---
Q11. What mechanism activates p53 in response to DNA damage?
Answer: Phosphorylation
Explanation: DNA damage leads to activation of p53 by phosphorylation, which stabilizes the protein and activates its transcriptional functions. ---
Q12. What gene does activated p53 drive transcription of to cause G1-S cell cycle block?
Answer: CDKN1A (p21)
Explanation: Activated p53 drives transcription of CDKN1A (which encodes p21), a CDK inhibitor that prevents Rb phosphorylation, thereby causing a G1-S block in the cell cycle. ---
Q13. What is the purpose of the G1-S cell cycle block induced by p53?
Answer: To allow cells to repair DNA damage
Explanation: The pause in cell cycle progression allows cells time to repair DNA damage. If damage cannot be repaired, p53 then induces cellular senescence or apoptosis. ---
Q14. If DNA damage cannot be repaired, what outcomes can p53 induce?
Answer: Cellular senescence or apoptosis
Explanation: If DNA damage cannot be repaired despite the cell cycle pause, p53 induces either cellular senescence (permanent growth arrest) or apoptosis (programmed cell death). ---
Q15. How do oncogenic DNA viruses like HPV disable RB and p53 function?
Answer: By encoding proteins that bind to RB and p53
Explanation: Oncogenic DNA viruses like HPV encode proteins that bind to RB and p53, rendering them non-functional and allowing uncontrolled cell proliferation. ---
Q16. What percentage of pancreatic cancers have mutations in at least one component of the TGF-β pathway?
Answer: 83%
Explanation: In 100% of pancreatic cancers and 83% of colon cancers, at least one component of the TGF-β pathway is mutated, highlighting its critical role as a growth inhibitor. ---
Q17. In most normal epithelial, endothelial, and hematopoietic cells, what is the effect of TGF-β?
Answer: Potent inhibitor of proliferation
Explanation: In most normal epithelial, endothelial, and hematopoietic cells, TGF-β is a potent inhibitor of proliferation, transmitting antiproliferative signals. ---
Q18. What cellular process does TGF-β activate in late-stage tumors that promotes metastasis?
Answer: Epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT)
Explanation: In late-stage tumors, TGF-β signaling can paradoxically activate epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT), promoting migration, invasion, and metastasis. ---
Q19. What does TGF-β signaling activate that has growth-suppressing activity?
Answer: Cyclins
Explanation: TGF-β signaling leads to transcriptional activation of CDK inhibitors (CDKIs) with growth-suppressing activity, while also repressing growth-promoting genes like MYC and cyclins. ---
Q20. Which genes does TGF-β signaling repress?
Answer: MYC, CDK2, CDK4, and cyclins A and E
Explanation: TGF-β signaling represses growth-promoting genes such as MYC, CDK2, CDK4, and those encoding cyclins A and E, contributing to its antiproliferative effects. ---
Q21. What cellular behavior is abolished in cancer cells, allowing them to pile on top of one another?
Answer: Contact inhibition
Explanation: Contact inhibition is abolished in cancer cells, allowing them to pile on top of one another and continue proliferating despite cell-cell contact. ---
Q22. Which molecule maintains contact inhibition and is lost in malignant cells?
Answer: E-cadherin
Explanation: E-cadherin maintains contact inhibition, which is lost in malignant cells, allowing them to overcome this normal growth-limiting mechanism. ---
Q23. What protein does the NF2 tumor suppressor gene produce?
Answer: E-cadherin
Explanation: The NF2 tumor suppressor gene produces neurofibromin-2 (merlin), which facilitates E-cadherin-mediated contact inhibition. ---
Q24. How does the APC gene exert antiproliferative actions?
Answer: By regulating destruction of cytoplasmic β-catenin
Explanation: The APC gene exerts antiproliferative actions by regulating the destruction of cytoplasmic β-catenin, preventing its nuclear translocation and transcriptional activity. ---
Q25. What happens when APC is mutated and lost?
Answer: β-catenin accumulates, translocates to nucleus, acts as growth-promoting transcription factor
Explanation: With APC mutation and loss, β-catenin is not destroyed, accumulates in the cytoplasm, translocates to the nucleus, and acts as a growth-promoting transcription factor. ---
Q26. What syndrome is associated with germline mutation of the APC gene?
Answer: Hereditary breast-ovarian cancer syndrome
Explanation: Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome involves inheritance of a germline mutation in the APC gene, with sporadic loss of the normal allele causing development of hundreds of colonic polyps at a young age. ---
Q27. What percentage of sporadic colon cancers show somatic loss of both APC alleles?
Answer: 70%
Explanation: Somatic loss of both alleles of the APC gene is seen in approximately 70% of sporadic colon cancers, demonstrating its importance in colorectal carcinogenesis. ---
Q28. What are the two main pathways that can initiate apoptosis?
Answer: Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
Explanation: Apoptosis can be initiated through extrinsic (death receptor) or intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathways, both resulting in activation of a proteolytic caspase cascade. ---
Q29. What regulates mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization in apoptosis?
Answer: Caspases only
Explanation: Mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization is regulated by the balance between pro-apoptotic molecules (e.g., BAX, BAK) and anti-apoptotic molecules (BCL2, BCL-XL). ---
Q30. What is the role of BH3-only proteins in apoptosis?
Answer: Regulate balance between pro- and anti-apoptotic BCL2 family members
Explanation: BH3-only proteins (BAD, BID, and PUMA) regulate the balance between pro- and anti-apoptotic members of the BCL2 family, tilting it in favor of pro-apoptotic molecules to activate apoptosis. ---
Q31. How do BH3-only molecules activate apoptosis?
Answer: By tilting balance in favor of pro-apoptotic molecules
Explanation: BH3-only molecules activate apoptosis by tilting the balance in favor of the pro-apoptotic molecules, promoting mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization and caspase activation. ---
Q32. What is autophagy?
Answer: Stress-induced process where cells consume their own components
Explanation: Autophagy is a stress-induced process where cells consume their own components, which cancer cells may avoid through mutations or corrupt to provide parts for continued growth. ---
Q33. How can cancer cells manipulate autophagy?
Answer: Accumulate mutations to avoid it or corrupt it to support growth
Explanation: Cancer cells may accumulate mutations to avoid autophagy (which could lead to cell death), or may corrupt the process to provide cellular components for continued growth. ---
Q34. What happens to telomeres in normal cells with each cell division?
Answer: They shorten
Explanation: Telomeres shorten with each cell division in normal cells due to incomplete replication of chromosome ends, eventually activating cell cycle checkpoints leading to senescence. ---
Q35. What is the consequence of shortened telomeres in normal cells with intact checkpoints?
Answer: Senescence
Explanation: Shortened telomeres in normal cells with intact checkpoints eventually activate cell cycle checkpoints, leading to senescence and placing a limit on the number of divisions. ---
Q36. What happens when cells have disabled checkpoints and shortened telomeres?
Answer: Massive chromosomal instability and mitotic crisis
Explanation: In cells with disabled checkpoints, DNA repair pathways are inappropriately activated by shortened telomeres, leading to massive chromosomal instability and mitotic crisis. ---
Q37. How do tumor cells achieve immortality?
Answer: By reactivating telomerase
Explanation: Tumor cells reactivate telomerase, thus staving off mitotic catastrophe from critically shortened telomeres and achieving unlimited replicative potential (immortality). ---
Q38. What is the fundamental characteristic of tumor suppressor genes?
Answer: They apply brakes to cell proliferation
Explanation: The proteins encoded by tumor suppressor genes apply brakes to cell proliferation. Disruptions of such genes render cells refractory to growth inhibition. ---
Q39. How many copies of a tumor suppressor gene must be dysfunctional for tumor development?
Answer: Both copies must be dysfunctional
Explanation: Unlike oncogenes (which require only one mutated copy), both copies of a tumor suppressor gene must be dysfunctional for tumor development to occur. ---
Q40. What is the clinical consequence of heterozygosity at the RB locus?
Answer: Not neoplastic
Explanation: Heterozygosity at the Rb locus (one normal, one mutated allele) is not neoplastic. Both alleles must be lost for tumor development, illustrating the two-hit hypothesis. ---
Q41. What cancers besides retinoblastoma show homozygous loss of RB gene?
Answer: Multiple other cancers
Explanation: Homozygous loss or mutation of the Rb gene is seen in retinoblastoma and many other cancers, demonstrating its broader role as a tumor suppressor beyond its tissue of discovery. ---
Q42. Almost all cancers have a disabled G1 checkpoint due to what?
Answer: RB mutation or mutations affecting RB function (cyclin D, CDK4, CDKIs)
Explanation: Almost all cancers have a disabled G1 checkpoint due to either RB mutation or mutations in genes that affect Rb function, such as cyclin D, CDK4, and CDK inhibitors. ---
Q43. What is the relationship between TGF-β receptors I and II in signal transduction?
Answer: They form a complex upon ligand binding
Explanation: TGF-β regulates cellular processes by binding to a complex composed of TGF-β receptors I and II. Dimerization of the receptors upon ligand binding initiates the signaling cascade. ---
Q44. In sporadic retinoblastoma, what is the origin of both hits?
Answer: Both are somatic mutations in one retinoblast
Explanation: In sporadic cases, both normal RB alleles are lost by somatic mutation in one retinoblast, requiring two independent mutational events in the same cell. ---
Q45. What members of the BCL2 family are pro-apoptotic?
Answer: BCL2 and BCL-XL
Explanation: BAX and BAK are pro-apoptotic members of the BCL2 family that promote mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, while BCL2 and BCL-XL are anti-apoptotic. ---
Q46. What members of the BCL2 family are anti-apoptotic?
Answer: BAX and BAK
Explanation: BCL2 and BCL-XL are anti-apoptotic molecules that prevent mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization and inhibit apoptosis, opposing the actions of BAX and BAK. ---
Q47. What inevitably happens to polyps in familial adenomatous polyposis?
Answer: One or more evolve into colonic cancer
Explanation: In familial adenomatous polyposis, patients develop hundreds of colonic polyps at a young age, and inevitably one or more of these polyps evolve into colonic cancer. ---
Q48. Which genes does activated p53 control in response to stress?
Answer: Genes involved in cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, senescence, and apoptosis
Explanation: Activated p53 controls the expression and activity of genes involved in multiple protective responses: cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, cellular senescence, and apoptosis. ---
Q49. What is the functional consequence of RB binding to E2F?
Answer: Prevention of transcription of genes required for DNA replication
Explanation: When hypophosphorylated Rb binds to E2F transcription factor, it prevents E2F from activating transcription of genes required for DNA replication, such as cyclin E, thus blocking cell cycle progression. ---
Q50. What fundamental process in carcinogenesis involves failure of growth inhibition?
Answer: Insensitivity to growth inhibitory signals
Explanation: Failure of growth inhibition (insensitivity to growth inhibitory signals) is fundamental in carcinogenesis. Disruption of tumor suppressor genes renders cells refractory to growth inhibition and mimics growth-promoting effects.