Weekly Year 1: Anatomy Exam - June 5, 2026 (Section A: MCQs)

36 clinical MCQs in Weekly Exam: Year 1: Anatomy. A midline abdominal incision below the umbilicus passes through all the following EXCEPT:

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. A midline abdominal incision below the umbilicus passes through all the following EXCEPT:

    Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

    Explanation: A midline incision is made through the linea alba, which separates the rectus abdominis muscles. Therefore, the rectus abdominis muscles themselves are not transected in a midline incision.

  2. Q2. The spleen:

    Answer: Is supplied by the splenic artery, a branch of the superior mesenteric artery

    Explanation: The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant, is a single organ, and is primarily involved in filtering blood. The splenic artery is a branch of the celiac trunk, not the superior mesenteric artery.

  3. Q3. Which is the most common site for the appendix found at appendicectomy?

    Answer: Retrocecal

    Explanation: The retrocecal position is the most common anatomical location for the appendix, accounting for approximately 65% of cases.

  4. Q4. The abdominal aorta:

    Answer: Is typically located to the left of the inferior vena cava

    Explanation: The abdominal aorta arises from the thoracic aorta, bifurcates into the common iliac arteries, and is located to the left of the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is drained by veins, not arteries.

  5. Q5. With regard to the spleen, which is NOT true?

    Answer: It is part of the lymphatic system

    Explanation: While the spleen has lymphatic tissue and plays a role in immune function, its primary roles are filtering blood and storing platelets. It is not considered a primary lymphatic organ in the same way lymph nodes are.

  6. Q6. With regard to the duodenum, which is NOT true?

    Answer: It is a retroperitoneal organ for its entire length

    Explanation: The first part of the duodenum is intraperitoneal. The second, third, and fourth parts are largely retroperitoneal.

  7. Q7. The ejaculatory ducts:

    Answer: Are formed by the union of the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicle duct

    Explanation: The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the ductus deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle. They then pass through the substance of the prostate gland to empty into the prostatic urethra.

  8. Q8. The ureter passes deep to the:

    Answer: Inferior vena cava

    Explanation: In the male, the right ureter passes deep to the inferior vena cava. The left ureter passes deep to the left colic arteries. The superior mesenteric artery crosses anterior to the left renal vein, not deep to the ureter. The renal artery is superior to the ureter.

  9. Q9. With respect to the testicle:

    Answer: It descends through the inguinal canal during the 7th month of gestation

    Explanation: The testicle typically descends through the inguinal canal during the 7th month of gestation. The efferent ductules connect the rete testis to the epididymis. The cremaster muscle is innervated by the genitofemoral nerve. The testicle is supplied by the testicular artery, a branch of the abdominal aorta.

  10. Q10. Regarding abdominal vascular anatomy, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

    Answer: The celiac trunk supplies the foregut

    Explanation: The superior mesenteric vein drains into the portal vein, often merging with the splenic vein to form the portal vein. The splenic vein does not drain into the superior mesenteric vein.

  11. Q11. With regard to the ureter, which is NOT true?

    Answer: Its blood supply is primarily from the renal artery

    Explanation: The ureter receives blood supply from several sources along its length, including the renal artery (proximal), gonadal artery (mid), and vesical arteries (distal). The renal artery does not solely supply the entire ureter.

  12. Q12. With regard to the female pelvis, which is NOT true?

    Answer: The bladder is located anterior to the vagina

    Explanation: The ovaries are connected to the uterus by the ovarian ligament. The suspensory ligament of the ovary connects the ovary to the pelvic wall.

  13. Q13. Tensor fasciae latae is supplied by:

    Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

    Explanation: The tensor fasciae latae muscle is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

  14. Q14. Which structure is intrasynovial at the knee joint:

    Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

    Explanation: The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are considered intrasynovial, meaning they are covered by the synovial membrane of the knee joint.

  15. Q15. The 'screw-home' movement in extension of the knee joint begins with tightening of the:

    Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

    Explanation: The 'screw-home' mechanism, which locks the knee in full extension, is initiated by the tension in the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).

  16. Q16. Tibialis anterior:

    Answer: Is responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot

    Explanation: Tibialis anterior is in the anterior compartment of the leg and is responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion. It is innervated by the deep fibular nerve. Its tendon passes anterior to the medial malleolus.

  17. Q17. The adductor canal:

    Answer: Is bounded laterally by the vastus medialis and medially by the adductor longus

    Explanation: The adductor canal (Hunter's canal) is a fascial tunnel in the thigh that contains the superficial femoral artery and vein, and the saphenous nerve. It is bounded anterolaterally by the vastus medialis, medially by the adductor longus and adductor magnus, and posteriorly by the adductor magnus. It does not contain the femoral nerve, which is in the femoral triangle superiorly.

  18. Q18. The great saphenous vein:

    Answer: Arises from the dorsal venous arch of the foot

    Explanation: The great saphenous vein arises from the medial side of the dorsal venous arch of the foot and ascends on the medial side of the leg and thigh, draining into the femoral vein via the saphenofemoral junction in the femoral triangle.

  19. Q19. Regarding the femoral artery:

    Answer: It is a continuation of the external iliac artery

    Explanation: The femoral artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery as it passes under the inguinal ligament. It is located lateral to the femoral nerve in the femoral triangle and becomes the popliteal artery posterior to the knee, not within the adductor canal.

  20. Q20. Gluteus maximus:

    Answer: Its superior fibers are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve

    Explanation: The gluteus maximus is the largest of the gluteal muscles and is a powerful hip extensor. While its superior fibers receive innervation from the superior gluteal nerve, the main motor innervation is from the inferior gluteal nerve. Hip abduction is primarily the function of the gluteus medius and minimus.

  21. Q21. Regarding the adductor compartment:

    Answer: Includes the adductor magnus, adductor longus, and gracilis

    Explanation: The adductor compartment contains muscles that adduct the thigh, including the adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, gracilis, and obturator externus. The femoral nerve innervates the anterior compartment muscles and provides sensory innervation to the medial thigh. The sartorius is in the anterior compartment.

  22. Q22. Which vessel is NOT involved in the trochanteric anastomosis?

    Answer: Obturator artery

    Explanation: The trochanteric anastomosis is formed by branches of the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, and the superior gluteal artery (a branch of the internal iliac artery). The obturator artery is not typically considered part of this anastomosis.

  23. Q23. The sciatic nerve:

    Answer: Is the largest nerve in the body

    Explanation: The sciatic nerve is indeed the largest nerve in the body. It exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen, typically passing inferior to the piriformis muscle. It is formed by the posterior divisions of the ventral rami of L4-S3. It divides into the tibial and common fibular nerves in the posterior thigh.

  24. Q24. Which is the odd one out?

    Answer: Ureter

    Explanation: The ureter is part of the urinary system that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. The vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and prostatic urethra are all part of the male reproductive and ejaculatory pathway.

  25. Q25. What cranial nerve supplies taste innervation for the posterior tongue?

    Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

    Explanation: The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) provides taste innervation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.

  26. Q26. Which structure is not found in the carotid sheath?

    Answer: Sympathetic trunk

    Explanation: The sympathetic trunk is located posterior to the carotid sheath, not within it.

  27. Q27. Which supplies motor innervation to the hypopharynx?

    Answer: Vagus nerve (CN X)

    Explanation: The vagus nerve (CN X) provides motor innervation to the muscles of the hypopharynx (pharyngeal constrictors and cricopharyngeus).

  28. Q28. A horizontal section of the parotid gland will show which one of the following structures piercing the gland?

    Answer: Facial nerve (CN VII)

    Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) runs through the parotid gland, branching to supply the muscles of facial expression. The parotid duct also emerges from the gland, but the facial nerve is the structure that pierces it.

  29. Q29. When a patient was asked to protrude the tongue, it was noticed the tongue protruded markedly to the left. This can be due to injury to which of the following nerves?

    Answer: Right hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

    Explanation: The genioglossus muscle, responsible for protruding the tongue, is innervated by the hypoglossal nerve. If the tongue protrudes to the left, it means the right genioglossus is functioning weakly or not at all, indicating an injury to the right hypoglossal nerve.

  30. Q30. Which of the following muscles is not located within or involved in the formation of the boundaries of the posterior neck triangle?

    Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

    Explanation: The sternocleidomastoid muscle forms the anterior boundary of the posterior neck triangle. The trapezius forms the posterior boundary, and the omohyoid forms the inferior belly boundary. Splenius capitis is involved in the superior aspect.

  31. Q31. A 65-year-old patient presents with an inability to smile on the left side of his face. The patient reports having a penetrating injury to the side of his mouth that healed. The physical exam shows the patient's lips were unable to move upward when smiling. What nerve innervates the affected muscle?

    Answer: Facial nerve (CN VII)

    Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression, including those responsible for smiling. Injury to the facial nerve on the left side would cause weakness or paralysis of these muscles on the left.

  32. Q32. The occipital and subclavian triangles are separated by:

    Answer: Omohyoid muscle

    Explanation: The inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle separates the occipital triangle (superior part) from the subclavian triangle (inferior part) of the posterior neck triangle.

  33. Q33. Retropharyngeal space exists between?

    Answer: Pharynx and the prevertebral fascia

    Explanation: The retropharyngeal space is the potential space located between the buccopharyngeal fascia (which covers the posterior surface of the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle) and the prevertebral fascia (which covers the anterior surface of the vertebral bodies).

  34. Q34. Infections in the retropharyngeal space may spread to which of the following?

    Answer: Mediastinum

    Explanation: Due to its direct continuity with the fascial planes of the neck, infections in the retropharyngeal space can readily spread inferiorly into the mediastinum.

  35. Q35. Which one of the following parts of a cell lacks a bounding membrane?

    Answer: Ribosome

    Explanation: Ribosomes are granular organelles composed of ribosomal RNA and protein, and they do not have a membrane surrounding them.

  36. Q36. The electron dense layers of cell membranes are biochemically identified as:

    Answer: Hydrophilic heads of phospholipids

    Explanation: Under electron microscopy, the electron-dense layers of the cell membrane correspond to the hydrophilic heads of the phospholipid bilayer, which stain more readily with heavy metals. The hydrophobic tails form the electron-lucent inner layer.

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