Weekly Year 1: Anatomy Exam - May 29, 2026 (Section A: MCQs)

36 clinical MCQs in Weekly Exam: Year 1: Anatomy. A midline abdominal incision below the umbilicus passes through all the following EXCEPT:

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. A midline abdominal incision below the umbilicus passes through all the following EXCEPT:

    Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

    Explanation: A midline incision in the abdomen divides the skin, subcutaneous tissue, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. It does not typically involve cutting through the rectus abdominis muscle itself, but rather splitting its fibers.

  2. Q2. The spleen:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The spleen is situated in the left upper quadrant, is a major organ of the lymphatic system, and is largely covered by visceral peritoneum, except at its hilum.

  3. Q3. Which is the most common site for the appendix found at appendicectomy?

    Answer: Retrocecal

    Explanation: The retrocecal position is the most common anatomical location for the appendix, though its variability is well-known.

  4. Q4. The abdominal aorta:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The abdominal aorta originates at the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm, bifurcates into the common iliac arteries at the level of L4, and gives off major unpaired visceral branches such as the celiac trunk, SMA, and IMA.

  5. Q5. With regard to the spleen, which is NOT true?

    Answer: It drains into the inferior vena cava.

    Explanation: The spleen drains into the splenic vein, which is part of the portal venous system, not directly into the inferior vena cava.

  6. Q6. With regard to the duodenum, which is NOT true?

    Answer: It is mostly retroperitoneal.

    Explanation: While the second, third, and fourth parts of the duodenum are retroperitoneal, the first part is intraperitoneal.

  7. Q7. The ejaculatory ducts:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the fusion of the vas deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle, traverse the prostate, and empty into the prostatic urethra at the seminal colliculus.

  8. Q8. The ureter passes deep to the:

    Answer: Common iliac artery

    Explanation: The ureters pass posterior to the common iliac arteries (or external and internal iliac arteries as they bifurcate) as they descend towards the pelvis.

  9. Q9. With respect to the testicle:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The testicle originates from the gonadal ridge, undergoes descent through the inguinal canal, and is suspended by the spermatic cord.

  10. Q10. Regarding abdominal vascular anatomy, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

    Answer: The splenic artery supplies the stomach and spleen.

    Explanation: The inferior mesenteric artery typically supplies the distal third of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum, not the ascending colon.

  11. Q11. With regard to the ureter, which is NOT true?

    Answer: It is completely covered by peritoneum.

    Explanation: The ureters are muscular tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder. They are retroperitoneal for most of their length and are not completely covered by peritoneum.

  12. Q12. With regard to the female pelvis, which is NOT true?

    Answer: The ovaries are suspended by the suspensory ligament of the ovary.

    Explanation: The ovaries are primarily suspended by the mesovarium (part of the broad ligament) and the ovarian ligament, not the suspensory ligament of the ovary (which contains the ovarian vessels).

  13. Q13. Tensor fasciae latae is supplied by:

    Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

    Explanation: The tensor fasciae latae muscle is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

  14. Q14. Which structure is intrasynovial at the knee joint:

    Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

    Explanation: Both the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments are considered intrasynovial at the knee joint, meaning they are covered by the synovial membrane, although they are extrasynovial in the strictest sense as they lie within the joint capsule but outside the synovial cavity.

  15. Q15. The 'screw-home' movement in extension of the knee joint begins with tightening of the:

    Answer: Popliteus

    Explanation: The 'screw-home' mechanism is initiated by the popliteus muscle, which laterally rotates the femur on the tibia during the final degrees of knee extension.

  16. Q16. Tibialis anterior:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: Tibialis anterior is a primary dorsiflexor of the foot, innervated by the deep peroneal nerve, and is located on the anterior aspect of the lower leg.

  17. Q17. The adductor canal:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The adductor canal (also known as Hunter's canal) is a fascial tunnel in the medial thigh that transmits the femoral artery and vein, and the saphenous nerve.

  18. Q18. The great saphenous vein:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The great saphenous vein is the longest superficial vein in the body, draining into the femoral vein at the saphenofemoral junction.

  19. Q19. Regarding the femoral artery:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The femoral artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery, traverses the adductor canal, and branches into the profunda femoris artery.

  20. Q20. Gluteus maximus:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: Gluteus maximus is the largest gluteal muscle, plays a major role in hip extension, and is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

  21. Q21. Regarding the adductor compartment:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The adductor compartment contains multiple muscles responsible for hip adduction. Adductor longus and magnus are key examples, with specific innervation patterns.

  22. Q22. Which vessel is NOT involved in the trochanteric anastomosis?

    Answer: Inferior gluteal artery

    Explanation: The trochanteric anastomosis (around the greater trochanter) is primarily formed by branches of the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries and the first perforating artery. The inferior gluteal artery is more involved in the cruciate anastomosis.

  23. Q23. The sciatic nerve:

    Answer: All of the above.

    Explanation: The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from spinal nerves L4 through S3, and typically divides into the tibial and common fibular nerves in the thigh.

  24. Q24. Which is the odd one out?

    Answer: Ejaculatory duct

    Explanation: The epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicle are all parts of the male reproductive tract involved in sperm transport and storage, or fluid production. The ejaculatory duct is the terminal structure formed by the union of the vas deferens and seminal vesicle duct, and its primary role is to convey semen into the urethra.

  25. Q25. What cranial nerve supplies taste innervation for the posterior tongue?

    Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

    Explanation: The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) provides taste innervation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.

  26. Q26. Which structure is not found in the carotid sheath?

    Answer: Sympathetic trunk

    Explanation: The carotid sheath encloses the internal jugular vein, common carotid artery (or internal and external carotid arteries), and vagus nerve. The sympathetic trunk is located posterior to the carotid sheath.

  27. Q27. Which supplies motor innervation to the hypopharynx?

    Answer: Vagus nerve (CN X)

    Explanation: The vagus nerve (CN X) provides motor innervation to most of the muscles of the pharynx, including the hypopharynx, via the pharyngeal plexus.

  28. Q28. A horizontal section of the parotid gland will show which one of the following structures piercing the gland?

    Answer: Facial nerve

    Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) passes through the substance of the parotid gland, dividing it into superficial and deep lobes, before branching to innervate facial muscles. The retromandibular vein and external carotid artery are also within or deep to the gland, and Stensen's duct exits the gland.

  29. Q29. When a patient was asked to protrude the tongue, it was noticed the tongue protruded markedly to the left. This can be due to injury to which of the following nerves?

    Answer: Right hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

    Explanation: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) innervates the genioglossus muscle, which is the primary muscle responsible for protruding the tongue. If the right hypoglossal nerve is injured, the left genioglossus muscle will be unopposed, causing the tongue to deviate to the left upon protrusion.

  30. Q30. Which of the following muscles is not located within or involved in the formation of the boundaries of the posterior neck triangle?

    Answer: Splenius capitis

    Explanation: The posterior neck triangle is bounded by the trapezius (posteriorly), sternocleidomastoid (anteriorly), and the clavicle (inferiorly). The levator scapulae is also involved in its floor. The splenius capitis is more deeply located and not a primary boundary muscle.

  31. Q31. A 65-year-old patient presents with an inability to smile on the left side of his face. The patient reports having a penetrating injury to the side of his mouth that healed. The physical exam shows the patient's lips were unable to move upward when smiling. What nerve innervates the affected muscle?

    Answer: Facial nerve (CN VII)

    Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression, including those responsible for smiling. Unilateral weakness or paralysis of these muscles suggests facial nerve dysfunction.

  32. Q32. The occipital and subclavian triangles are separated by:

    Answer: Omohyoid muscle

    Explanation: The inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle divides the posterior cervical triangle into the occipital triangle (superiorly) and the subclavian (or omoclavicular) triangle (inferiorly).

  33. Q33. Retropharyngeal space exists between?

    Answer: Buccopharyngeal fascia and alar fascia

    Explanation: The retropharyngeal space is located between the buccopharyngeal fascia (which covers the posterior aspect of the pharynx) and the alar fascia (a layer of the deep cervical fascia).

  34. Q34. Infections in the retropharyngeal space may spread to which of the following?

    Answer: Mediastinum

    Explanation: Due to its continuity with the danger space and prevertebral space, infections in the retropharyngeal space can readily spread inferiorly into the mediastinum.

  35. Q35. Which one of the following parts of a cell lacks a bounding membrane?

    Answer: Ribosome

    Explanation: Ribosomes are granular structures composed of ribosomal RNA and protein, and they are not enclosed by a membrane.

  36. Q36. The electron dense layers of cell membranes are biochemically identified as:

    Answer: Transmembrane proteins

    Explanation: In electron micrographs, the electron-dense layers of the cell membrane represent the hydrophilic heads of the phospholipids and associated proteins, and are often interpreted as the protein components interacting with the lipid bilayer. However, the electron-dense staining commonly observed in TEM reflects the presence of proteins associated with the membrane.

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