94 clinical MCQs in Weekly Exam: Year 2: GIT Physiology. Which of the following statements about Gastrin is TRUE?
Q1. Which of the following statements about Gastrin is TRUE?
Answer: It stimulates the growth of gastric mucosa.
Explanation: Gastrin, secreted by G cells, is a potent stimulator of gastric acid secretion and also has a trophic effect, promoting the growth of the gastric mucosa, pancreas, and small intestinal mucosa.
Q2. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP) causes which of the following effects?
Answer: Relaxation of smooth muscle in the gut wall.
Explanation: VIP is a neurotransmitter that causes relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle, including sphincters, and also stimulates intestinal and pancreatic fluid and electrolyte secretion, and inhibits gastric acid secretion.
Q3. Which of the following is a major stimulant for gastrointestinal secretion?
Answer: Low pH in the small intestine.
Explanation: Mechanical distension of the gut wall, as well as chemical stimuli (e.g., presence of food components), are primary stimulators of local reflexes and hormone release, leading to increased secretion and motility. Low pH in the small intestine stimulates secretin, which in turn stimulates bicarbonate secretion, but distension is a more general stimulant for overall GI secretion.
Q4. Regarding the hormone Secretin, which statement is correct?
Answer: It stimulates the pancreas to secrete a bicarbonate-rich fluid.
Explanation: Secretin is released from S cells in the duodenum in response to acidic chyme entering the small intestine. Its primary role is to stimulate the pancreas to secrete a large volume of fluid rich in bicarbonate, which neutralizes the gastric acid.
Q5. Inhibition of the myenteric plexus leads to which of the following?
Answer: Decreased strength and frequency of contractions.
Explanation: The myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus is primarily responsible for controlling gastrointestinal motility. Inhibition of this plexus would therefore lead to decreased strength and frequency of contractions, potentially resulting in hypomotility or paralytic ileus.
Q6. Stimulation of the submucosal plexus results in an increase in which of the following?
Answer: Gastrointestinal blood flow and local secretions.
Explanation: The submucosal (Meissner's) plexus primarily controls local gastrointestinal secretion, absorption, and local blood flow. Stimulation would increase these functions.
Q7. Which of the following hormones inhibits gastric acid secretion?
Answer: Somatostatin
Explanation: Somatostatin, released by D cells in the stomach and duodenum, acts locally to inhibit gastrin release and directly inhibits parietal cell acid secretion, thereby decreasing gastric acid output.
Q8. Cholecystokinin (CCK) has which of the following primary actions?
Answer: Stimulates gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Explanation: CCK is released from I cells in the duodenum and jejunum in response to fats and proteins. It potently stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile and pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes. It also relaxes the sphincter of Oddi and inhibits gastric emptying.
Q9. The major factor that stimulates the release of Secretin into the bloodstream is:
Answer: Acidic chyme entering the duodenum.
Explanation: Secretin is released from S cells in the duodenum specifically in response to a decrease in luminal pH below 4.5, indicating the presence of acidic chyme from the stomach.
Q10. It is known that gastrin:
Answer: Stimulates the secretion of intrinsic factor.
Explanation: Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells to release histamine, which then acts on parietal cells to stimulate acid secretion. Gastrin also directly stimulates parietal cells.
Q11. It is known that secretin:
Answer: Potentiates the action of CCK on pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Explanation: Secretin primarily stimulates bicarbonate secretion, but it also potentiates the effects of CCK on pancreatic enzyme secretion, meaning that together they have a greater effect than either hormone alone.
Q12. Concerning the gastrin hormone, which of the following is FALSE?
Answer: It directly stimulates pepsinogen secretion.
Explanation: While gastrin indirectly promotes pepsinogen secretion by stimulating acid (which activates pepsinogen to pepsin), gastrin's primary direct action on gastric glands is on acid secretion and mucosal growth. Pepsinogen secretion is more directly stimulated by acetylcholine and secretin.
Q13. Which single statement below, about the stomach, is correct?
Answer: Gastric emptying is slowed by the presence of fat in the duodenum.
Explanation: Fat in the duodenum stimulates CCK and GIP release, which inhibit gastric emptying, allowing more time for fat digestion in the small intestine. The cephalic phase stimulates acid secretion, intrinsic factor is from parietal cells, the fundus/body are main acid sites, and pepsin is active at acidic pH.
Q14. Water transport can occur from the lumen of the intestine to the bloodstream, or vice versa. Which statement is correct?
Answer: Water follows the active transport of solutes, primarily sodium.
Explanation: Water absorption in the GI tract is predominantly passive, occurring down osmotic gradients. These gradients are primarily established by the active transport of solutes, most notably sodium ions, from the lumen into the interstitial space.
Q15. Which statement about fat digestion and absorption is correct?
Answer: Micelles are essential for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
Explanation: Micelles, formed by bile salts, encapsulate fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) and cholesterol, allowing them to be transported to the brush border for absorption. Long-chain fatty acids are re-esterified into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons, which then enter the lymphatic system. Short-chain fatty acids can be absorbed directly into the portal blood.
Q16. Which statement about protein digestion is most correct?
Answer: Protein digestion begins in the mouth with salivary amylase.
Explanation: Aminopeptidases and carboxypeptidases are brush border enzymes (along with dipeptidases and tripeptidases) that cleave small peptides into amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides, which are then absorbed. Protein digestion begins in the stomach with pepsin. Pancreatic proteases (e.g., trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen) are secreted as inactive zymogens.
Q17. Which statement about dietary fibre is most correct?
Answer: Dietary fibre can bind to bile acids, increasing their excretion.
Explanation: Dietary fibre, particularly soluble fibre, binds to bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and increasing their excretion. This can lower cholesterol levels as the liver uses more cholesterol to synthesize new bile acids. Soluble fibre is fermented, insoluble fibre increases bulk and decreases transit time. Neither is digested or absorbed in the small intestine. Some are digestible by bacteria.
Q18. Which statement about absorption in the gastrointestinal tract is most correct?
Answer: The jejunum is the primary site for absorption of most digested nutrients.
Explanation: The jejunum has a large surface area due to its folds, villi, and microvilli, making it the primary site for the absorption of most digested carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, as well as many vitamins and electrolytes.
Q19. Which statement about the oral phase of digestion is INCORRECT?
Answer: Lipase enzymes are secreted in saliva to start fat digestion.
Explanation: While lingual lipase is secreted in saliva, its activity is minimal at salivary pH and primarily begins fat digestion once activated by the acidic environment of the stomach. Salivary glands do not secrete significant amounts of lipase that are active in the mouth.
Q20. Which statement about stomach lining cells is correct?
Answer: Mucous neck cells secrete bicarbonate.
Explanation: Parietal cells are responsible for secreting both hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen, G cells secrete gastrin, and mucous cells secrete mucus and some bicarbonate.
Q21. Which statement about pancreatic enzyme secretion is correct?
Answer: Trypsinogen is activated by enteropeptidase in the duodenum.
Explanation: Trypsinogen, an inactive precursor (zymogen), is converted to active trypsin by the brush-border enzyme enteropeptidase (also known as enterokinase) in the duodenal lumen. Trypsin then activates other pancreatic zymogens.
Q22. Which statement about post-meal gastrointestinal motility is correct?
Answer: Mass movements are frequent occurrences in the small intestine after a meal.
Explanation: The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that increases motility of the colon in response to stretching of the stomach by food. This prepares the colon for incoming chyme. The MMC occurs during fasting.
Q23. Which best describes colonic microbiota functions?
Answer: They produce short-chain fatty acids through fermentation of undigested carbohydrates.
Explanation: Colonic microbiota ferment undigested carbohydrates (dietary fibre) and some proteins, producing short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) like acetate, propionate, and butyrate, which can be absorbed and used as energy by the host.
Q24. What explains fibre's protective effect against colon cancer?
Answer: It dilutes potential carcinogens and reduces their contact time with the colonic mucosa.
Explanation: Dietary fibre increases stool bulk and speeds up transit time, which dilutes potential carcinogens in the stool and reduces their contact time with the colonic epithelial cells, thus reducing the risk of cancer.
Q25. Which of the following statements about GI motility is FALSE?
Answer: Haustral churning is a type of rapid propulsive movement in the large intestine.
Explanation: Haustral churning (or haustration) in the large intestine involves slow, mixing movements, not rapid propulsive movements. Mass movements are the strong propulsive contractions in the colon.
Q26. Which tissue layer provides for primary digestive motility?
Answer: Muscularis externa
Explanation: The muscularis externa (or muscularis propria) consists of inner circular and outer longitudinal smooth muscle layers. Contractions of these layers are responsible for the major propulsive (peristalsis) and mixing (segmentation) movements of the GI tract.
Q27. Which statement about bile is true?
Answer: Bile acids are recycled through the enterohepatic circulation.
Explanation: Bile acids (a component of bile) are highly conserved and undergo enterohepatic recirculation, where they are reabsorbed from the ileum and returned to the liver for reuse. Bile is produced in the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and contains bile salts/acids, cholesterol, bilirubin, and electrolytes, but not digestive enzymes.
Q28. Which statement regarding the swallowing reflex is false?
Answer: The pharyngeal phase is involuntary.
Explanation: Primary peristalsis in the esophagus is a reflex initiated by swallowing and is a wave of muscle contraction that propels food towards the stomach, independent of gravity. Gravity can assist, but the reflex itself is muscular.
Q29. Which of the following statements about GI regulation is TRUE?
Answer: The enteric nervous system can function completely independently of the CNS.
Explanation: The enteric nervous system (ENS), often called the 'gut brain,' is capable of independent function (e.g., controlling motility, secretion, and blood flow through local reflexes) even if extrinsic neural input from the CNS is severed. Sympathetic stimulation generally inhibits, parasympathetic stimulates. Gastrin is a hormone, not a neurotransmitter.
Q30. What is false about tonic contractions in the GI tract?
Answer: They are important for maintaining pressure against flow.
Explanation: Tonic contractions are sustained contractions, often lasting minutes to hours, and are characteristic of sphincters (maintaining closure) and the orad (proximal) stomach (maintaining pressure for receptive relaxation). Phasic contractions (like segmentation or peristalsis) are rhythmic and of shorter duration. Tonic contractions are sustained, not rhythmic.
Q31. Which of the following is characteristic of the segmenting movements in the small intestine?
Answer: They are responsible for thoroughly mixing chyme with digestive juices.
Explanation: Segmenting movements are localized contractions of the circular muscle that divide the small intestine into segments. Their primary function is to mix the chyme with digestive enzymes and expose it to the absorptive surface of the mucosa, rather than rapid propulsion.
Q32. Secretion of saliva increases in all of the below except:
Answer: Fear and anxiety.
Explanation: Fear and anxiety are associated with increased sympathetic activity, which generally inhibits salivary secretion, leading to a dry mouth. The other options are stimuli that typically increase salivary flow, primarily through parasympathetic pathways.
Q33. Defecation is a reflex action:
Answer: Initiated by distension of the rectum.
Explanation: The defecation reflex is initiated when feces enter the rectum, causing distension of the rectal wall. This triggers local and spinal cord reflexes. While the internal anal sphincter relaxes involuntarily, the external anal sphincter is under voluntary control, allowing for conscious control over defecation, though not indefinitely.
Q34. In the stomach, which of the following is true?
Answer: Carbohydrate digestion is completed here.
Explanation: Parietal cells secrete HCl, which provides the acidic environment necessary for pepsin activation and for denaturing proteins, making them more accessible to enzymatic breakdown. Intrinsic factor is for B12 absorption, not iron.
Q35. Intestinal secretions contain:
Answer: Bile salts for emulsification.
Explanation: The brush border of the small intestine contains integral membrane enzymes such as disaccharidases (e.g., lactase, sucrase, maltase) and peptidases (e.g., aminopeptidases, dipeptidases) that are responsible for the final stages of carbohydrate and protein digestion.
Q36. A 55-year-old man with chronic alcohol consumption presents with nonspecific complaints of dyspepsia. Examination reveals destruction of gastric glands, particularly parietal cells. This predisposes him to:
Answer: Pernicious anemia.
Explanation: Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum. Destruction of parietal cells leads to a lack of intrinsic factor, resulting in pernicious anemia (a type of megaloblastic anemia). Low acid also leads to increased gastrin (loss of negative feedback) but the primary direct consequence of parietal cell loss is B12 malabsorption.
Q37. Regarding the regulation of gastric acid secretion, which statement is TRUE?
Answer: Histamine, released from ECL cells, is a potent stimulator of parietal cells.
Explanation: Histamine, released from enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells in response to gastrin and acetylcholine, acts on H2 receptors on parietal cells, strongly stimulating HCl secretion.
Q38. Which hormone primarily inhibits gastric emptying?
Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation: Cholecystokinin (CCK) and Secretin are both released from the duodenum in response to chyme and act to inhibit gastric emptying, allowing more time for digestion and absorption in the small intestine. CCK is more potent in this role, especially in response to fat.
Q39. The primary role of the migrating motor complex (MMC) is:
Answer: To clear undigested material and bacteria from the small intestine during fasting.
Explanation: The MMC is a pattern of electrical and motor activity that occurs in the gastrointestinal tract during periods between meals (fasting state). Its primary function is to sweep undigested food, bacteria, and debris from the stomach and small intestine into the large intestine, often referred to as the 'housekeeping' function.
Q40. Regarding carbohydrate digestion and absorption, which of the following is correct?
Answer: SGLT1 is a transporter responsible for glucose and galactose absorption.
Explanation: SGLT1 (sodium-glucose cotransporter 1) is a secondary active transporter on the apical membrane of enterocytes that absorbs glucose and galactose along with sodium. Fructose uses GLUT5 for facilitated diffusion. Salivary amylase is inactivated by gastric acid.
Q41. The enterogastric reflex functions to:
Answer: Inhibit gastric emptying and acid secretion when chyme enters the duodenum.
Explanation: The enterogastric reflex is a short reflex that occurs when the duodenum becomes distended or receives acidic, fatty, or hypertonic chyme. It inhibits gastric motility and gastric acid secretion, thereby slowing gastric emptying and allowing the small intestine more time to process the chyme.
Q42. Which of the following describes the role of bile salts in fat digestion?
Answer: They emulsify large fat globules into smaller micelles.
Explanation: Bile salts do not digest fats; they are detergents that emulsify large fat globules into smaller fat droplets, increasing the surface area for pancreatic lipase to act upon. These smaller droplets are then incorporated into micelles for transport.
Q43. Which statement about the exocrine pancreas is FALSE?
Answer: Secretin primarily stimulates the acinar cells.
Explanation: Secretin primarily acts on the pancreatic duct cells to stimulate the secretion of a bicarbonate-rich fluid to neutralize acid. CCK primarily acts on the acinar cells to stimulate enzyme secretion.
Q44. Regarding the regulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion, which neurotransmitter is a major stimulant?
Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine, released from vagal nerve endings and enteric neurons, is a potent stimulant of pancreatic enzyme secretion from acinar cells.
Q45. The final products of carbohydrate digestion absorbed by the small intestine are primarily:
Answer: Monosaccharides
Explanation: Carbohydrates are digested by amylase and brush border disaccharidases into their simplest forms, monosaccharides (glucose, galactose, fructose), which are then absorbed into the enterocytes.
Q46. Which of the following factors would inhibit gastric emptying?
Answer: Acid in the duodenum.
Explanation: Acid (low pH), fat, and hypertonicity in the duodenum are strong inhibitors of gastric emptying. They trigger enterogastric reflexes and release of hormones like CCK and secretin that slow gastric emptying.
Q47. The primary function of the large intestine is:
Answer: Absorption of water and electrolytes, and storage of feces.
Explanation: The large intestine's main functions are to absorb most of the remaining water and electrolytes from indigestible food matter, store fecal matter before defecation, and compact it.
Q48. Which type of motility is responsible for moving chyme over long distances in the colon?
Answer: Mass movements
Explanation: Mass movements are strong, sustained contractions that occur infrequently (1-3 times per day) and are responsible for propelling fecal matter over long distances in the colon, typically into the rectum.
Q49. Regarding salivary glands, which statement is true?
Answer: Saliva is hypotonic to plasma.
Explanation: Saliva is hypotonic (lower solute concentration) compared to plasma because ductal cells reabsorb more NaCl than they secrete water. Saliva is primarily regulated by the autonomic nervous system, not hormones.
Q50. Which of the following best describes the function of GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide/Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic Peptide)?
Answer: Stimulates insulin release from the pancreas in response to glucose.
Explanation: GIP is released from K cells in the duodenum and jejunum in response to glucose and fat. Its primary role is to stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells, particularly after a carbohydrate-rich meal, and it also weakly inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.
Q51. Which of the following is NOT a component of bile?
Answer: Lipase
Explanation: Bile contains bile salts, bile pigments (like bilirubin), cholesterol, phospholipids, and electrolytes, but it does not contain digestive enzymes like lipase. Lipase is a pancreatic enzyme.
Q52. What is the primary effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the GI tract?
Answer: Increased motility and secretion.
Explanation: Parasympathetic (vagal) stimulation generally enhances most gastrointestinal functions, including increasing motility and stimulating secretions from glands. Sympathetic stimulation typically has inhibitory effects.
Q53. The process by which the stomach relaxes to accommodate incoming food without a significant increase in intragastric pressure is called:
Answer: Receptive relaxation
Explanation: Receptive relaxation is a vagally mediated reflex where the fundus and body of the stomach relax as food enters the esophagus and stomach, allowing the stomach to distend and accommodate the meal without a large increase in pressure.
Q54. Which enzyme is responsible for the initial breakdown of starch in the small intestine?
Answer: Pancreatic amylase
Explanation: While salivary amylase begins starch digestion in the mouth, it is inactivated by gastric acid. Pancreatic amylase is the primary enzyme responsible for breaking down starch into disaccharides and oligosaccharides in the small intestine.
Q55. Parietal cell activity is directly stimulated by all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: Somatostatin
Explanation: Somatostatin inhibits parietal cell activity and gastrin release. Histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine are direct stimulators of parietal cells. Protein in the stomach stimulates gastrin release, which then stimulates parietal cells.
Q56. The primary role of the ileocecal valve is to:
Answer: Prevent reflux of colonic contents into the ileum.
Explanation: The ileocecal valve acts as a sphincter, preventing the backflow of bacteria-rich contents from the large intestine into the sterile small intestine, and regulating the flow of chyme into the colon.
Q57. Malabsorption of fat can lead to deficiencies in which of the following vitamins?
Answer: Vitamin K
Explanation: Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) require dietary fat for their absorption. Malabsorption of fat (steatorrhea) can therefore lead to deficiencies in these vitamins.
Q58. Which of the following correctly describes the short reflex pathways of the enteric nervous system?
Answer: Are entirely confined within the gut wall and involve sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons.
Explanation: Short reflexes are intrinsic to the enteric nervous system. They involve sensory receptors within the gut wall detecting stimuli, signaling to local interneurons within the plexuses, which then activate motor neurons to affect local effector cells (e.g., muscle, secretory cells) without direct CNS involvement.
Q59. The cephalic phase of gastric secretion is initiated by:
Answer: The sight, smell, taste, or thought of food.
Explanation: The cephalic phase is anticipatory and is triggered by sensory inputs (sight, smell, taste of food) or even the thought of food. These signals are relayed via the vagus nerve to stimulate gastric secretion and motility.
Q60. What is the primary role of intrinsic factor?
Answer: To bind with vitamin B12, allowing its absorption in the ileum.
Explanation: Intrinsic factor, secreted by parietal cells, is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) in the terminal ileum. Without it, pernicious anemia can develop.
Q61. The hormone most responsible for the 'alkaline tide' observed after a meal is:
Answer: Gastrin
Explanation: The alkaline tide refers to the transient increase in blood pH after a meal, primarily due to the secretion of HCl by parietal cells. During HCl secretion, bicarbonate (HCO3-) is generated within the parietal cell and exported into the bloodstream in exchange for chloride ions. Gastrin is a primary stimulator of HCl secretion.
Q62. Which of the following is true about colonic fermentation?
Answer: It generates short-chain fatty acids that can be absorbed.
Explanation: Colonic microbiota ferment undigested carbohydrates (fibre) and some proteins that reach the colon. This process generates short-chain fatty acids (like butyrate, acetate, propionate), which can be absorbed by the colonic epithelial cells and used as an energy source.
Q63. The absorption of iron in the small intestine is regulated by:
Answer: Heme-carrier protein (HCP1) and DMT1 transporter.
Explanation: Iron absorption, particularly non-heme iron, is tightly regulated and occurs mainly in the duodenum. It involves specific transporters like Divalent Metal Transporter 1 (DMT1) for ferrous iron and Heme-Carrier Protein 1 (HCP1) for heme iron.
Q64. Which statement regarding the muscularis mucosae is correct?
Answer: It generates local movements of the mucosal folds and villi.
Explanation: The muscularis mucosae is a thin layer of smooth muscle within the mucosa. Its contractions cause local movements of the mucosal folds and villi, enhancing contact between the epithelium and luminal contents, thereby facilitating absorption and secretion.
Q65. An increase in sympathetic nervous system activity generally leads to:
Answer: Decreased gastrointestinal secretion.
Explanation: Sympathetic stimulation typically has an inhibitory effect on most gastrointestinal functions, including decreasing motility and reducing glandular secretions. It generally constricts sphincters.
Q66. Which of the following is an effect of Motilin?
Answer: Initiation of the migrating motor complex (MMC).
Explanation: Motilin is a hormone released during the fasting state that is responsible for initiating the migrating motor complex (MMC), the 'housekeeping' waves of contraction that sweep through the small intestine.
Q67. The zymogen pepsinogen is secreted by which gastric cell type?
Answer: Chief cells
Explanation: Chief cells, located in the gastric glands, are responsible for secreting pepsinogen, the inactive precursor to the proteolytic enzyme pepsin. Pepsinogen is activated by hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by parietal cells.
Q68. Which statement about the absorption of vitamin B12 is correct?
Answer: It requires intrinsic factor and is absorbed primarily in the terminal ileum.
Explanation: Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) must bind to intrinsic factor, a glycoprotein secreted by gastric parietal cells, to be absorbed in the specialized receptors in the terminal ileum.
Q69. What is the primary stimulus for the release of CCK?
Answer: Presence of fats and amino acids in the duodenum.
Explanation: CCK is secreted by I cells in the duodenum and jejunum predominantly in response to the presence of fatty acids and amino acids (products of protein digestion) in the intestinal lumen.
Q70. The reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus is normally prevented by the action of the:
Answer: Lower esophageal sphincter
Explanation: The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is a physiological sphincter that normally maintains a barrier against the reflux of acidic gastric contents into the esophagus. Its relaxation is coordinated with swallowing.
Q71. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the absorption of water-soluble vitamins (e.g., Vitamin C) in the small intestine?
Answer: Facilitated diffusion and active transport.
Explanation: Water-soluble vitamins are generally absorbed by carrier-mediated transport mechanisms, including facilitated diffusion (e.g., Vitamin C at high concentrations) and specific active transport systems (e.g., Vitamin C at lower concentrations, and most B vitamins).
Q72. The 'intestinal brake' refers to the feedback mechanism that slows gastric emptying due to:
Answer: Nutrient sensing in the ileum and colon.
Explanation: The 'ileal brake' or 'intestinal brake' is a feedback mechanism where the presence of undigested nutrients (especially fat) in the distal small intestine (ileum) or colon triggers a humoral and neural response that slows gastric emptying and intestinal transit, allowing more time for absorption.
Q73. Which of the following is true about the absorption of carbohydrates?
Answer: Glucose and galactose share the same secondary active transport mechanism.
Explanation: Glucose and galactose are both absorbed by the SGLT1 transporter via secondary active transport on the apical membrane of enterocytes. Fructose uses facilitated diffusion (GLUT5). Sucrose must be broken down by sucrase into glucose and fructose before absorption.
Q74. Which hormone is critical for the 'housekeeping' function of the small intestine during the interdigestive period?
Answer: Motilin
Explanation: Motilin is the primary hormone responsible for initiating the Migrating Motor Complex (MMC), which sweeps undigested material through the small intestine during fasting.
Q75. Excessive vagal stimulation would likely lead to:
Answer: Increased pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Explanation: The vagus nerve (parasympathetic) stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes (acetylcholine acting on muscarinic receptors). It also increases gastric acid secretion and motility.
Q76. Which of the following is a direct effect of Acetylcholine on the GI tract?
Answer: Decreased salivary gland secretion.
Explanation: Acetylcholine, released from vagal nerve endings and enteric neurons, directly stimulates parietal cells to increase gastric acid secretion. It also stimulates smooth muscle contraction and glandular secretions throughout the GI tract.
Q77. Damage to the myenteric plexus would primarily impair:
Answer: Coordinated peristalsis and segmentation.
Explanation: The myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and is primarily responsible for controlling the motor activity (peristalsis and segmentation) of the gastrointestinal tract.
Q78. A meal rich in fat would have which of the following effects on gastric emptying?
Answer: Delay it due to the release of CCK.
Explanation: Fats in the duodenum stimulate the release of Cholecystokinin (CCK) and Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP), which in turn inhibit gastric motility and acid secretion, thereby delaying gastric emptying to allow sufficient time for fat digestion and absorption in the small intestine.
Q79. What is the primary function of HCO3- (bicarbonate) secreted by the pancreas and bile ducts?
Answer: To neutralize acidic chyme from the stomach.
Explanation: Bicarbonate is secreted in large quantities by the pancreatic duct cells and bile duct cells in response to secretin. Its main role is to neutralize the highly acidic chyme entering the duodenum from the stomach, creating an optimal pH for pancreatic enzymes.
Q80. Which of the following is a major physiological stimulus for salivary secretion?
Answer: Presence of food in the mouth.
Explanation: The presence of food in the mouth (mechanical and chemical stimuli) is a strong physiological stimulus for salivary secretion, triggering reflexes that increase parasympathetic outflow to the salivary glands.
Q81. The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates the release of which hormone that also inhibits gastric acid secretion?
Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is released in response to fats and amino acids in the duodenum. Besides stimulating gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion, CCK also acts to inhibit gastric acid secretion and gastric emptying.
Q82. Which statement about the small intestine's role in digestion and absorption is correct?
Answer: The brush border enzymes are crucial for the final steps of carbohydrate and protein digestion.
Explanation: The brush border of the small intestinal enterocytes contains numerous enzymes (e.g., disaccharidases, aminopeptidases, dipeptidases) that perform the final breakdown of carbohydrates and proteins into absorbable monosaccharides, amino acids, and small peptides.
Q83. A patient with a gastrectomy (surgical removal of the stomach) would likely require lifelong supplementation of:
Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation: Total gastrectomy removes the parietal cells that produce intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption. Therefore, lifelong vitamin B12 supplementation (usually by injection) is required to prevent pernicious anemia.
Q84. Which of the following GI hormones causes contraction of the gallbladder?
Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation: CCK is released from the duodenum in response to fat and protein in the chyme. Its most prominent action related to the biliary system is to stimulate the contraction of the gallbladder, leading to the release of bile into the duodenum.
Q85. What is the primary mechanism by which glucose is absorbed into the intestinal epithelial cells (enterocytes) from the lumen?
Answer: Secondary active transport via SGLT1.
Explanation: Glucose is absorbed from the intestinal lumen into enterocytes primarily by secondary active transport via the SGLT1 (sodium-glucose cotransporter 1) transporter, which utilizes the sodium gradient established by the Na+/K+-ATPase pump.
Q86. The gastrocolic reflex involves:
Answer: Increased colonic motility in response to food entering the stomach.
Explanation: The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that increases the motility and mass movements of the colon in response to the stretching of the stomach by food. This prepares the colon for incoming chyme and often triggers the urge to defecate.
Q87. Which of the following is a primary function of hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach?
Answer: Denaturation of proteins and activation of pepsinogen.
Explanation: HCl creates the acidic environment necessary to denature proteins, making them more accessible for enzymatic digestion. It also converts inactive pepsinogen into its active form, pepsin, which begins protein digestion.
Q88. The enteric nervous system is composed of which two major plexuses?
Answer: Myenteric and submucosal.
Explanation: The enteric nervous system consists of two main plexuses: the myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus, primarily controlling motility, and the submucosal (Meissner's) plexus, primarily controlling secretion, absorption, and local blood flow.
Q89. Which hormone is released by S cells in the duodenum and stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas?
Answer: Secretin
Explanation: Secretin is released from S cells in the duodenum in response to acidic chyme. Its main function is to stimulate the pancreas to secrete a bicarbonate-rich fluid to neutralize the acid.
Q90. The enzyme lactase, important for lactose digestion, is primarily located:
Answer: On the brush border of intestinal enterocytes.
Explanation: Lactase, along with other disaccharidases like sucrase and maltase, is a brush border enzyme embedded in the apical membrane of the small intestinal enterocytes, responsible for the final breakdown of disaccharides into monosaccharides.
Q91. Which factor would increase the rate of gastric emptying?
Answer: Increased sympathetic activity.
Explanation: Gastrin, released from G cells in response to gastric distension and protein products, is a potent stimulator of gastric acid secretion and also increases gastric motility, thereby promoting gastric emptying. The other options generally inhibit gastric emptying.
Q92. Regarding the regulation of appetite and satiety, which hormone is known to increase hunger (orexigenic)?
Answer: Ghrelin
Explanation: Ghrelin, often called the 'hunger hormone,' is secreted primarily by the stomach and stimulates appetite, especially before meals. Leptin, CCK, insulin, and PYY generally promote satiety.
Q93. Which of the following describes the role of bile in fat digestion?
Answer: It emulsifies fats, increasing surface area for lipase action.
Explanation: Bile salts, a major component of bile, act as detergents to emulsify large dietary fat globules into smaller droplets within the duodenum. This process increases the surface area for water-soluble pancreatic lipase to efficiently digest the fats.
Q94. The enzyme enteropeptidase (enterokinase) is crucial for the activation of:
Answer: Trypsinogen to trypsin.
Explanation: Enteropeptidase, a brush-border enzyme in the duodenum, cleaves trypsinogen to form active trypsin. Trypsin then activates other pancreatic zymogens (like chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, proelastase) as well as more trypsinogen, initiating the cascade of protein digestion in the small intestine.