Weekly Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics Exam -...

72 clinical MCQs in Weekly Exam: Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics. What is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after D...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. What is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after Down syndrome?

    Answer: Fragile X syndrome

    Explanation: Fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after Down syndrome, with a frequency of 1 in 1550 for affected males and 1 in 8000 for affected females.

  2. Q2. What is the normal number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene?

    Answer: 5-44

    Explanation: The normal number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene is typically between 5 and 44.

  3. Q3. What defines a premutation in fragile X syndrome?

    Answer: 45-200 CGG repeats

    Explanation: A premutation in fragile X syndrome is characterized by the presence of 45-200 CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene.

  4. Q4. During which process can premutations be converted to full mutations in fragile X syndrome?

    Answer: Meiosis

    Explanation: Premutations can be converted to full mutations during meiosis, particularly in the female germline, due to the expansion of CGG repeats.

  5. Q5. What is the only distinctive physical abnormality detected in at least 90% of postpubertal males with fragile X syndrome?

    Answer: Macroorchidism

    Explanation: Macroorchidism (enlarged testes) is the only distinctive physical abnormality detected in at least 90% of postpubertal males with fragile X syndrome.

  6. Q6. What phenomenon describes the worsening of clinical features with each successive generation in fragile X syndrome?

    Answer: Anticipation

    Explanation: Anticipation is the phenomenon where clinical features of a genetic disorder worsen or appear earlier in successive generations, often due to expansion of repeat sequences like in Fragile X syndrome.

  7. Q7. What percentage of carrier females with fragile X are affected (mentally retarded)?

    Answer: 30-40%

    Explanation: Approximately 30-40% of carrier females with fragile X syndrome are affected with mental retardation, though severity can vary.

  8. Q8. What is the molecular basis for fragile X syndrome?

    Answer: Trinucleotide repeat expansion in the FMR1 gene

    Explanation: Fragile X syndrome is caused by an expansion of CGG trinucleotide repeats in the FMR1 gene, leading to its silencing and lack of functional protein.

  9. Q9. What is the function of FMRP (Familial Mental Retardation Protein)?

    Answer: RNA binding and transport

    Explanation: FMRP is an RNA-binding protein that plays a crucial role in RNA transport and local protein synthesis, particularly in neuronal development.

  10. Q10. What condition affects approximately 30% of females carrying the fragile X premutation?

    Answer: Fragile X-associated primary ovarian insufficiency (FXPOI)

    Explanation: Approximately 30% of females carrying the fragile X premutation develop Fragile X-associated primary ovarian insufficiency (FXPOI).

  11. Q11. What syndrome develops in approximately one-third of premutation-carrying males in their sixth decade?

    Answer: Alzheimer disease

    Explanation: Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS) develops in approximately one-third of premutation-carrying males in their sixth decade.

  12. Q12. In Huntington disease, when does conversion from premutation to full mutation occur?

    Answer: During spermatogenesis

    Explanation: In Huntington disease, the conversion from a premutation to a full mutation typically occurs during spermatogenesis (male gamete formation).

  13. Q13. Two pure breeding parents are crossed similar to Mendel's Parental generation. A tall plant is crossed with a short plant. What is the expected outcome for the F1 generation?

    Answer: All tall plants

    Explanation: If a pure breeding tall plant (homozygous dominant) is crossed with a pure breeding short plant (homozygous recessive), all offspring in the F1 generation will be heterozygous and express the dominant tall phenotype.

  14. Q14. If the cross from #1 is continued, what would be the expected outcome in the F2 generation?

    Answer: 75% tall and 25% short plants

    Explanation: When F1 heterozygous plants are crossed, the F2 generation will exhibit a 3:1 phenotypic ratio (75% tall, 25% short) and a 1:2:1 genotypic ratio (1 homozygous dominant : 2 heterozygous : 1 homozygous recessive).

  15. Q15. Which of the following is the BEST definition of inbreeding?

    Answer: Crossing of closely related individuals

    Explanation: Inbreeding is defined as the mating of closely related individuals, which increases homozygosity and can expose recessive alleles.

  16. Q16. Referring to the Punnett square for a cross between BB x bb (B = black rat, b = white rat) and complete dominance, which of the following accurately represents the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of the F1 generation?

    Answer: Genotype: 100% Bb; Phenotype: 100% black

    Explanation: A cross between BB (homozygous dominant) and bb (homozygous recessive) will produce F1 offspring that are all Bb (heterozygous). With complete dominance of B over b, all Bb individuals will exhibit the black phenotype.

  17. Q17. Using the information in the Punnett square above (BB x bb), how would we refer to the parents and the offspring?

    Answer: Parents: P generation; Offspring: F1 generation

    Explanation: The initial parents in a cross are referred to as the P (parental) generation, and their immediate offspring are the F1 (first filial) generation.

  18. Q18. If we were to cross the offspring in the Punnett square above (known as the F1 generation), what will be the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the F2 generation?

    Answer: Genotype: 1 BB : 2 Bb : 1 bb; Phenotype: 3 black : 1 white

    Explanation: Crossing F1 heterozygotes (Bb x Bb) results in an F2 generation with a genotypic ratio of 1 BB : 2 Bb : 1 bb and a phenotypic ratio of 3 black : 1 white due to complete dominance.

  19. Q19. Recombination frequency of < 0.5 suggests

    Answer: Genes are linked and close together

    Explanation: A recombination frequency of less than 0.5 (or 50%) indicates that genes are linked on the same chromosome and are located relatively close to each other.

  20. Q20. Use the information and the Punnett square below to respond to the next three questions: Hemophilia is an X linked recessive disorder. What are the chances that this couple will have a child with hemophilia?

    Answer: 50%

    Explanation: Let's assume the father is unaffected (X^H Y) and the mother is a carrier (X^H X^h). The Punnett square would show a 25% chance of an affected son (X^h Y), a 25% chance of an unaffected son (X^H Y), a 25% chance of a carrier daughter (X^H X^h), and a 25% chance of an unaffected daughter (X^H X^H).

  21. Q21. The mother undergoes amniocentesis during her pregnancy, and is told that the child she is carrying is a boy. What are the chances that her son will have hemophilia?

    Answer: 100%

    Explanation: Given the mother is a carrier (X^H X^h) and the child is a boy (XY), there is a 50% chance he will inherit the X^h chromosome from his mother, resulting in hemophilia (X^h Y).

  22. Q22. The mother has a second pregnancy four years later. She is told that her baby will be a girl. What are the chances that her daughter will have hemophilia?

    Answer: 25%

    Explanation: Hemophilia is X-linked recessive. A female offspring would need to inherit two copies of the recessive allele (X^h X^h) to be affected. Since the father is assumed to be unaffected (X^H Y), he can only pass on an X^H allele. Therefore, a daughter will at best be a carrier (X^H X^h), not affected with hemophilia.

  23. Q23. The principle that states that alleles separate during gamete formation is the

    Answer: Law of Segregation

    Explanation: The Law of Segregation states that during gamete formation, the alleles for each gene separate from each other so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.

  24. Q24. If you crossed two heterozygous plants, how many of the offspring will also be heterozygous?

    Answer: 1/2

    Explanation: When crossing two heterozygous individuals (e.g., Aa x Aa), the genotypic ratio of the offspring is 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Therefore, 1/2 of the offspring will be heterozygous (Aa).

  25. Q25. What is the minimum population frequency required for a genetic variant to be classified as a polymorphism?

    Answer: 10%

    Explanation: A polymorphism is defined as a genetic variant that has at least two alleles and occurs in at least 1% of the population, distinguishing it from rare mutations.

  26. Q26. In complex multigenic disorders, what percentage of type 1 diabetes risk is contributed by a few HLA alleles?

    Answer: 30-50%

    Explanation: In type 1 diabetes, a few HLA alleles contribute significantly to the genetic risk, estimated to be around 30-50% of the overall genetic predisposition.

  27. Q27. Which environmental factor is most commonly associated with unmasking the genetic trait in type 2 diabetes mellitus?

    Answer: Diet and lifestyle (obesity, inactivity)

    Explanation: Diet and lifestyle factors, including obesity and physical inactivity, are the most significant environmental contributors that unmask the genetic predisposition to type 2 diabetes mellitus.

  28. Q28. What proportion of newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality?

    Answer: 1 in 200

    Explanation: Approximately 1 in 200 newborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality, with about half of these being clinically significant.

  29. Q29. What percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: 40-50%

    Explanation: Approximately 40-50% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities, making them a significant cause of early pregnancy loss.

  30. Q30. Which staining technique is widely used to produce distinctive banding patterns on chromosomes?

    Answer: Giemsa staining (G-banding)

    Explanation: Giemsa staining, specifically G-banding (Giemsa banding), is the most common and widely used technique for producing distinctive banding patterns on chromosomes, allowing for their identification and analysis.

  31. Q31. A chromosome number of 3n is classified as

    Answer: Triploidy

    Explanation: A chromosome number of 3n (three complete sets of chromosomes) is classified as triploidy, a type of polyploidy.

  32. Q32. What is the primary cause of aneuploidy?

    Answer: Nondisjunction during meiosis or mitosis

    Explanation: The primary cause of aneuploidy (an abnormal number of chromosomes) is nondisjunction, which is the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly during meiosis or mitosis.

  33. Q33. What is the chromosome count in a trisomic zygote?

    Answer: 2n - 1

    Explanation: A trisomic zygote has an extra copy of one chromosome, resulting in a total of 2n + 1 chromosomes.

  34. Q34. Which type of chromosomal abnormality is better tolerated: autosomal or sex chromosomal?

    Answer: Both are equally tolerated

    Explanation: Sex chromosomal abnormalities are generally better tolerated than autosomal abnormalities, partly due to X-inactivation in females and the smaller number of genes on the Y chromosome.

  35. Q35. What does mosaicism refer to in cytogenetics?

    Answer: Having a mixture of cells with different chromosome numbers or structures within the same individual

    Explanation: Mosaicism refers to the presence of two or more distinct cell populations with different genotypes or chromosome complements within a single individual, originating from a single zygote.

  36. Q36. In cytogenetic notation, what does "p" represent?

    Answer: The short arm of a chromosome

    Explanation: In cytogenetic notation, 'p' refers to the short arm of a chromosome (from the Latin 'petit', meaning small).

  37. Q37. A genetic variant with at least two alleles occurring in at least 1% of the population is termed

    Answer: Polymorphism

    Explanation: A genetic variant with at least two alleles occurring in at least 1% of the population is defined as a polymorphism.

  38. Q38. In type 1 diabetes, approximately how many genes contribute most significantly to disease risk?

    Answer: 10-15

    Explanation: While many genes contribute to type 1 diabetes risk, a specific set of about 10-15 genes, particularly within the HLA complex, contribute most significantly to the disease susceptibility.

  39. Q39. Which environmental factor commonly unmasks the genetic trait in type 2 diabetes mellitus?

    Answer: Obesity and sedentary lifestyle

    Explanation: Obesity and a sedentary lifestyle are the most significant environmental factors that unmask the genetic predisposition to type 2 diabetes mellitus.

  40. Q40. Approximately what percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: 40-50%

    Explanation: Chromosomal abnormalities are a major cause of miscarriage, accounting for approximately 40-50% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions.

  41. Q41. The G-banding technique uses which stain to visualize chromosomes?

    Answer: Giemsa stain

    Explanation: The G-banding technique uses Giemsa stain, after treatment with trypsin, to visualize the characteristic banding patterns on chromosomes.

  42. Q42. A chromosome number of 69 (3n) would be classified as

    Answer: Triploidy

    Explanation: A chromosome number of 69, which represents three complete sets of chromosomes (3n), is classified as triploidy.

  43. Q43. The chief cause of aneuploidy is

    Answer: Nondisjunction

    Explanation: Nondisjunction, the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly during cell division, is the chief cause of aneuploidy.

  44. Q44. Monosomy involving an autosome is

    Answer: Rarely viable

    Explanation: Monosomy involving an autosome (lack of one chromosome from a pair) is typically not viable and results in miscarriage. The only common viable autosomal monosomy is not seen.

  45. Q45. Mosaicism is defined as

    Answer: Having a mixture of cells with different chromosome complements within one individual

    Explanation: Mosaicism is the presence of two or more cell lines with different chromosome numbers or structures within a single individual that originated from a single zygote.

  46. Q46. In cytogenetic notation, "p" denotes

    Answer: The short arm of a chromosome

    Explanation: In cytogenetic notation, 'p' signifies the short arm of a chromosome (from the French 'petit' for small).

  47. Q47. The notation 46,XX,t(2;5)(q31;p14) indicates

    Answer: A female with a translocation between the long arm of chromosome 2 and the short arm of chromosome 5

    Explanation: 46,XX indicates a female with 46 chromosomes. t(2;5)(q31;p14) indicates a reciprocal translocation involving chromosome 2 (at band q31) and chromosome 5 (at band p14). The q arm is the long arm and the p arm is the short arm.

  48. Q48. Robertsonian translocation typically involves

    Answer: The fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes at their centromeres

    Explanation: Robertsonian translocations occur between two acrocentric chromosomes (chromosomes with centromeres near the ends) where their long arms fuse at the centromeric region, with the loss of the short arms.

  49. Q49. What is the lifetime frequency of genetic disease per 1000 individuals?

    Answer: 670

    Explanation: The lifetime frequency of genetic disease is estimated to be 670 per 1000 individuals, meaning a significant portion of the population will be affected by some form of genetic condition.

  50. Q50. Approximately how many genes do human beings have?

    Answer: 20,000

    Explanation: The current estimate for the number of protein-coding genes in the human genome is around 20,000 to 25,000.

  51. Q51. What percentage of human DNA codes for proteins?

    Answer: Less than 2%

    Explanation: Only a small fraction of the human genome, less than 2%, codes for proteins. The majority is non-coding DNA, including regulatory regions and repetitive sequences.

  52. Q52. What percentage of DNA sequence do individuals share with each other?

    Answer: 99%

    Explanation: On average, individuals share approximately 99% of their DNA sequence. The small differences account for human genetic variation.

  53. Q53. Approximately what percentage of early pregnancy miscarriages have demonstrable chromosomal abnormalities?

    Answer: 40-50%

    Explanation: Chromosomal abnormalities are a leading cause of early pregnancy loss, accounting for approximately 40-50% of first-trimester miscarriages.

  54. Q54. What is a point mutation?

    Answer: A change in a single nucleotide base

    Explanation: A point mutation is a genetic alteration where a single nucleotide base is substituted, inserted, or deleted in the DNA sequence.

  55. Q55. What type of mutation is exemplified by sickle cell anemia?

    Answer: Missense mutation

    Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is caused by a missense mutation in the beta-globin gene, where a single nucleotide substitution leads to the replacement of one amino acid (glutamic acid) with another (valine).

  56. Q56. What is a frameshift mutation?

    Answer: A mutation caused by the insertion or deletion of nucleotides not in multiples of three

    Explanation: A frameshift mutation occurs when the insertion or deletion of nucleotides is not in a multiple of three, altering the reading frame of the mRNA and changing all subsequent amino acids and often leading to premature termination.

  57. Q57. What type of mutation involves dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides?

    Answer: Chromosomal translocation

    Explanation: Trinucleotide repeat expansion is a type of mutation characterized by the dynamic amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides (e.g., CGG, CAG) within a gene.

  58. Q58. Which disorder is an example of trinucleotide repeat mutation?

    Answer: Huntington disease

    Explanation: Huntington disease is a classic example of a disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion (CAG repeats) in the huntingtin gene.

  59. Q59. What are the three major categories of genetic disorders?

    Answer: Single-gene disorders, chromosomal disorders, and complex multifactorial disorders

    Explanation: Genetic disorders are broadly categorized into single-gene disorders (Mendelian), chromosomal disorders, and complex multifactorial disorders (influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors).

  60. Q60. Which type of mutation affects germ cells?

    Answer: Germline mutation

    Explanation: A germline mutation occurs in the egg or sperm cells and can be passed on to offspring. Somatic mutations occur in non-reproductive cells and affect only the individual.

  61. Q61. A couple has a child with an autosomal recessive disorder. Neither parent is affected. What is the probability that their next child will be affected?

    Answer: 50%

    Explanation: If neither parent is affected but they have an affected child, both parents must be carriers (heterozygous) for the autosomal recessive trait. The probability of two carriers having an affected child (homozygous recessive) is 25% with each pregnancy.

  62. Q62. An estimated 50% of early pregnancy miscarriages have which underlying cause?

    Answer: Chromosomal abnormalities

    Explanation: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early pregnancy miscarriages, accounting for approximately 40-50% of cases.

  63. Q63. What percentage of human DNA codes for proteins?

    Answer: Less than 2%

    Explanation: Only a small fraction of the human genome, less than 2%, is composed of protein-coding genes (exons).

  64. Q64. A patient has a genetic condition that shows different severity among affected family members despite having the same mutation. This phenomenon is called:

    Answer: Expressivity

    Explanation: Expressivity refers to the degree to which a trait is expressed, meaning that individuals with the same genotype can show different severity or forms of the phenotype.

  65. Q65. Sickle cell anemia results from which type of mutation?

    Answer: Missense mutation

    Explanation: Sickle cell anemia is caused by a single nucleotide substitution in the beta-globin gene, resulting in the replacement of one amino acid with another. This is a missense mutation.

  66. Q66. Which approach to understanding genetic disease starts with identifying a known affected protein, then isolating the normal gene?

    Answer: Reverse genetics

    Explanation: Reverse genetics starts with a known gene or protein and then investigates its function or its role in disease. This approach often involves identifying the gene for a known protein and then determining its function or association with a disease.

  67. Q67. A mutation that changes an amino acid codon to a chain terminator is classified as:

    Answer: Nonsense mutation

    Explanation: A nonsense mutation is a point mutation that results in a premature stop codon, leading to the termination of protein synthesis.

  68. Q68. How many deleterious genes does the average person carry?

    Answer: 1-2

    Explanation: The average person is estimated to carry 1-2 deleterious recessive genes that could cause disease if inherited from both parents.

  69. Q69. In X-linked recessive disorders, an affected male will:

    Answer: Pass the mutated gene to all his daughters

    Explanation: An affected male (X^a Y) will pass his X chromosome, which carries the mutated gene (X^a), to all of his daughters. If the mother is not a carrier, the daughters will be carriers (X^A X^a). He will pass his Y chromosome to his sons, who will not inherit the X-linked mutation from him.

  70. Q70. Fragile X syndrome is caused by which type of mutation?

    Answer: Trinucleotide repeat expansion

    Explanation: Fragile X syndrome is caused by the expansion of CGG trinucleotide repeats in the FMR1 gene.

  71. Q71. A single mutant gene leading to multiple, seemingly unrelated effects is an example of:

    Answer: Pleiotropy

    Explanation: Pleiotropy is the phenomenon where a single gene mutation affects multiple phenotypic characteristics that may appear unrelated.

  72. Q72. Which category represents the largest group of Mendelian disorders?

    Answer: Autosomal recessive

    Explanation: Autosomal recessive disorders represent the largest group of Mendelian disorders, as many carrier states exist in the population.

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