35 clinical MCQs in Weekly Exam: Year 2: Molecular Genetics and Cytogenetics. What is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after D...
Q1. What is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after Down syndrome?
Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation: Fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation after Down syndrome, affecting approximately 1 in 1550 males.
Q2. What is the normal range of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene?
Answer: 6-44 repeats
Explanation: The normal number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene is typically between 6 and 44. Expansions beyond this range lead to premutation or full mutation.
Q3. In Fragile X syndrome, what number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene defines a premutation?
Answer: 55-200 repeats
Explanation: A premutation in Fragile X syndrome is defined by 55-200 CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene. Individuals with a premutation may not have intellectual disability but are at risk for other Fragile X-associated disorders.
Q4. During which biological process can a fragile X premutation be converted to a full mutation?
Answer: Oogenesis
Explanation: Premutations in the FMR1 gene are unstable and can expand into full mutations during female meiosis (oogenesis), but typically not during male meiosis.
Q5. Which physical abnormality is detected in at least 90% of postpubertal males with Fragile X syndrome?
Answer: Macro-orchidism
Explanation: Macro-orchidism (enlarged testes) is the only distinctive physical abnormality detected in at least 90% of postpubertal males with Fragile X syndrome.
Q6. What phenomenon describes the worsening of clinical features with each successive generation, as observed in Fragile X syndrome?
Answer: Anticipation
Explanation: Anticipation is the phenomenon where the age of onset decreases and the severity of the disease increases with each successive generation, often due to increasing trinucleotide repeat expansions.
Q7. Approximately what percentage of carrier females with a full mutation for Fragile X syndrome are affected by mental retardation?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: Approximately 50% of carrier females with a full mutation for Fragile X syndrome are affected by mental retardation, although often less severely than affected males.
Q8. What is the primary molecular basis for Fragile X syndrome?
Answer: Trinucleotide repeat expansion (CGG) in the FMR1 gene
Explanation: Fragile X syndrome is caused by an unstable expansion of a CGG trinucleotide repeat in the 5' untranslated region of the FMR1 gene, leading to hypermethylation and silencing of the gene.
Q9. What is the primary function of FMRP (Fragile X Mental Retardation Protein)?
Answer: RNA binding and translation regulation
Explanation: FMRP is an RNA-binding protein involved in the regulation of mRNA translation, particularly important in synaptic plasticity in the brain.
Q10. Approximately 30% of females carrying the Fragile X premutation are affected by which condition?
Answer: Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS)
Explanation: Fragile X-associated primary ovarian insufficiency (FXPOI) is a common condition affecting approximately 30% of females with a FMR1 premutation.
Q11. Approximately one-third of premutation-carrying males develop which syndrome in their sixth decade?
Answer: Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS)
Explanation: Approximately one-third of premutation-carrying males develop Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS) in their sixth decade or later.
Q12. In Huntington disease, the conversion from premutation to full mutation primarily occurs during which process?
Answer: Spermatogenesis
Explanation: In Huntington disease, the unstable CAG repeat expansion (premutation to full mutation) primarily occurs during spermatogenesis, leading to paternal transmission bias for earlier onset.
Q13. In a Mendelian cross, if a pure-breeding tall plant (dominant) is crossed with a pure-breeding short plant (recessive), what is the expected outcome for the F1 generation?
Answer: All tall plants
Explanation: According to Mendel's law of dominance, when pure-breeding dominant and recessive parents are crossed, all F1 offspring will express the dominant phenotype (tall) and be heterozygous.
Q14. If the F1 generation (from the pure-breeding tall x pure-breeding short cross) is self-pollinated, what is the expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation?
Answer: 3:1 (Tall:Short)
Explanation: A cross between F1 heterozygotes (e.g., Tt x Tt) results in an F2 phenotypic ratio of 3 dominant (Tall) to 1 recessive (Short).
Q15. Which of the following best defines inbreeding in genetics?
Answer: Mating of closely related individuals
Explanation: Inbreeding refers to the mating of closely related individuals, which increases homozygosity and the likelihood of expressing recessive traits.
Q16. Given a cross between two pure-breeding parents (BB x bb) for rat fur color (B=black, b=white), what are the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of the F1 generation?
Answer: 100% black, 100% Bb
Explanation: When pure-breeding BB is crossed with pure-breeding bb, all F1 offspring will be genotypically Bb and phenotypically black due to complete dominance.
Q17. In the cross BB x bb, how are the parents and the F1 offspring typically referred to?
Answer: Parents: Homozygous, Offspring: Heterozygous
Explanation: BB and bb parents are homozygous (pure-breeding), while the Bb F1 offspring are heterozygous.
Q18. If the F1 generation (Bb x Bb) from the previous cross is bred, what are the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the F2 generation?
Answer: Genotypic 1:2:1 (BB:Bb:bb), Phenotypic 3:1 (Black:White)
Explanation: A cross between two heterozygotes (Bb x Bb) yields an F2 genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 (BB:Bb:bb) and a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 (Black:White).
Q19. A recombination frequency of less than 0.5 (or 50%) between two genes suggests what?
Answer: The genes are linked and on the same chromosome
Explanation: A recombination frequency of less than 0.5 indicates that the genes are linked, meaning they are located on the same chromosome and tend to be inherited together.
Q20. A carrier mother (X^H X^h) and an unaffected father (X^H Y) have a child. What is the probability that their child (regardless of sex) will have hemophilia (an X-linked recessive disorder)?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: In a cross of X^H X^h x X^H Y, there is a 25% chance of having an affected son (X^h Y), and 0% chance of an affected daughter, thus 25% overall chance for any child.
Q21. If the mother (X^H X^h) and father (X^H Y) are expecting a boy, what is the probability that their son will have hemophilia?
Answer: 100%
Explanation: For male offspring, the mother passes on either X^H or X^h with equal probability. Since sons inherit their X chromosome from their mother, there is a 50% chance her son will inherit X^h and be affected.
Q22. If the mother (X^H X^h) and father (X^H Y) are expecting a girl, what is the probability that their daughter will have hemophilia?
Answer: 25%
Explanation: Daughters inherit one X from the mother and one X from the father. Since the father is unaffected (X^H Y), all daughters will inherit at least one dominant X^H allele (either X^H X^H or X^H X^h), meaning none will be affected by hemophilia.
Q23. Which Mendelian principle states that alleles for a heritable character separate (segregate) during gamete formation and end up in different gametes?
Answer: Law of Segregation
Explanation: Mendel's Law of Segregation states that the two alleles for a heritable character segregate (separate from each other) during gamete formation and end up in different gametes.
Q24. In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals (e.g., Aa x Aa), what percentage of the offspring are expected to be heterozygous?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: A Punnett square for an Aa x Aa cross yields genotypes AA, Aa, aA, aa. The heterozygous genotypes (Aa and aA) represent 2 out of 4, or 50% of the offspring.
Q25. What is the minimum population frequency required for a genetic variant to be officially classified as a polymorphism?
Answer: 10%
Explanation: A polymorphism is defined as a genetic variant that has at least two alleles and occurs in at least 1% of the population, distinguishing it from rare mutations.
Q26. In type 1 diabetes, approximately what percentage of the genetic risk is attributed to a few specific HLA alleles?
Answer: 50%
Explanation: Approximately 50% of the genetic risk for type 1 diabetes is contributed by a few HLA alleles, highlighting the strong genetic predisposition associated with this autoimmune condition.
Q27. Which environmental factor is most commonly associated with unmasking the genetic predisposition for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Answer: Diet and obesity
Explanation: Diet and obesity are the most commonly recognized environmental factors that interact with genetic predisposition to unmask type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Q28. Approximately what proportion of liveborn infants has some form of chromosomal abnormality?
Answer: 1 in 200
Explanation: Approximately 1 in 200 liveborn infants has a chromosomal abnormality, though many are minor and some are lethal.
Q29. Approximately what percentage of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities?
Answer: 50-60%
Explanation: Chromosomal abnormalities are a major cause of pregnancy loss, associated with approximately 50-60% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions.
Q30. Which staining technique is widely used to produce distinctive banding patterns on chromosomes for karyotyping?
Answer: Giemsa banding (G-banding)
Explanation: G-banding, using Giemsa stain, is the most common technique to visualize unique banding patterns on chromosomes, allowing for identification of individual chromosomes and detection of structural abnormalities.
Q31. A chromosome number of 3n (e.g., 69 chromosomes in humans) is classified as what?
Answer: Polyploidy
Explanation: Polyploidy refers to the condition where an organism has more than two complete sets of chromosomes (e.g., triploidy 3n, tetraploidy 4n).
Q32. What is the primary cause of aneuploidy?
Answer: Nondisjunction during meiosis
Explanation: Nondisjunction, the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly during meiosis, is the primary cause of aneuploidy.
Q33. What is the total chromosome count in a human trisomic zygote?
Explanation: A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes (2n). Trisomy is the presence of an extra copy of a chromosome, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes (2n+1).
Q34. Generally, which type of chromosomal aneuploidy is better tolerated in humans?
Answer: Sex chromosomal aneuploidy
Explanation: Sex chromosomal aneuploidies (e.g., XXY, XYY, XXX, XO) are generally better tolerated than autosomal aneuploidies, which often lead to severe developmental issues or are lethal.
Q35. In cytogenetics, what does mosaicism refer to?
Answer: The presence of different chromosomal abnormalities in different cells of the same individual
Explanation: Mosaicism is a condition in which an individual has two or more genetically distinct cell lines originating from a single zygote, often due to a mitotic error early in development.