34 clinical MCQs in Weekly Exam: Year 2: Parasitology. Which one of the following is an intracellular parasite?
Q1. Which one of the following is an intracellular parasite?
Answer: *Plasmodium falciparum*
Explanation: Plasmodium falciparum is an obligate intracellular parasite that infects red blood cells and liver cells.
Q2. Parasites can be classified based on their hosts. Which one of the following statements classifies an Ectoparasite?
Answer: A parasite that lives on the external surface of the host.
Explanation: Ectoparasites reside on the exterior of the host organism, such as ticks on the skin of a mammal.
Q3. Single-celled parasites utilize various physiological modes to take in molecules. Which one of the following is adopted for intake of nutrients for general existence within the parasite?
Answer: Diffusion
Explanation: Diffusion is a passive process where molecules move from an area of high concentration to low concentration, allowing single-celled parasites to absorb nutrients directly from their environment.
Q4. The following are genetic-based conditions which can lead to resistance against malaria infection EXCEPT?
Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the respiratory and digestive systems and does not confer resistance to malaria.
Q5. In which form does Fasciola hepatica infect the human host?
Answer: Metacercariae
Explanation: Humans become infected with Fasciola hepatica by ingesting the infective metacercariae encysted on vegetation.
Q6. Malaria infection is characterized by paroxysms. What is the interval of these paroxysms in a Plasmodium vivax infection?
Answer: 48 hours (tertian)
Explanation: Plasmodium vivax causes tertian malaria, with fever paroxysms occurring every 48 hours.
Q7. Which of the following parasites can be diagnosed by cerebrospinal fluid biopsy?
Answer: *Taenia solium*
Explanation: Neurocysticercosis, caused by the larval cysts of Taenia solium , can involve the central nervous system and may require CSF analysis for diagnosis.
Q8. Trichomonas vaginalis is characterized by how many flagella?
Answer: Four anterior flagella and an undulating membrane
Explanation: Trichomonas vaginalis possesses four anterior flagella and a single flagellum extending along the undulating membrane.
Q9. Which of the following is NOT true about bacterial flagella?
Answer: They are composed of protein subunits called tubulin.
Explanation: Bacterial flagella are composed of flagellin protein, not tubulin, which is found in eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
Q10. What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?
Answer: Survival in unfavorable conditions
Explanation: Endospores are dormant, tough, and non-reproductive structures produced by some bacteria that allow them to survive harsh environmental conditions.
Q11. Cells containing many nuclei are called
Answer: Coenocytic
Explanation: Coenocytic refers to a multinucleate cell or organism that is not divided into compartments by cell membranes.
Q12. The group or mass of hyphae is
Answer: Mycelium
Explanation: Mycelium is a vegetative part of a fungus, consisting of a network of fine white filaments (hyphae).
Q13. Which of the following is the least common site for formation of a hydatid cyst?
Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation: While hydatid cysts can form in various organs, bone marrow is a less frequent site compared to the liver, lungs, and brain.
Q14. Which of the following meals is BEST advisable to be taken with albendazole?
Answer: A high-fat meal
Explanation: Albendazole absorption is significantly increased when taken with a fatty meal.
Q15. Which of the following is an armed tapeworm?
Answer: *Taenia solium*
Explanation: Taenia solium is an armed tapeworm due to the presence of a rostellum with hooks at the scolex.
Q16. Which of the following medication is given based on body weight in treatment of broad tapeworm?
Answer: Praziquantel
Explanation: Praziquantel is a commonly used medication for treating tapeworm infections, and its dosage is typically calculated based on the patient's body weight.
Q17. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except?
Answer: Adult worms live in the large intestine.
Explanation: Adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms reside in the small intestine, not the large intestine.
Q18. The human infective stage of Taenia solium is?
Answer: Cysticercus cellulosae
Explanation: Humans become infected with Taenia solium by ingesting undercooked pork containing the larval cysts (cysticercus cellulosae).
Q19. In which muscles are hexacanth filtered out in the intermediate hosts?
Answer: Skeletal muscles
Explanation: Hexacanth embryos typically develop into larvae within the skeletal muscles of intermediate hosts.
Q20. Which part of the human body is not inhabited by the larvae in cysticercosis?
Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation: While cysticercosis can affect various tissues including the brain, muscles, and eyes, bone marrow is not a typical site for cysticerci development.
Q21. Which of the following parasites cause sparganosis?
Answer: *Spirometra* species
Explanation: Sparganosis is a human infection caused by plerocercoid larvae of Spirometra species.
Q22. Which parasite is best diagnosed using lymphatic fluid?
Answer: *Wuchereria bancrofti*
Explanation: Lymphatic filariasis, caused by Wuchereria bancrofti , is diagnosed by the presence of microfilariae in blood or lymphatic fluid.
Q23. Which of the following tapeworm infections will require prescription with clonazepam? (Select all that apply)
Answer: Neurocysticercosis
Explanation: Clonazepam (an anticonvulsant) is sometimes used to manage seizures associated with neurocysticercosis, where Taenia solium larvae infect the brain.
Q24. Which parasite results into micropthalmia condition?
Answer: *Toxoplasma gondii*
Explanation: Congenital toxoplasmosis, if untreated, can lead to ocular abnormalities such as microphthalmia (abnormally small eyes).
Q25. Fish are second intermediate hosts of?
Answer: *Diphyllobothrium latum*
Explanation: Diphyllobothrium latum , the broad fish tapeworm, uses fish as its second intermediate host.
Q26. Which of the following secretes defensive secretions to cause irritation on human skin?
Answer: Chiggers (larval mites)
Explanation: Chiggers, the larval stage of certain mites, secrete digestive enzymes onto the skin to liquefy tissues for feeding, causing intense itching and irritation.
Q27. Holometabolous insects have?
Answer: Complete metamorphosis (larval, pupal, and adult stages)
Explanation: Holometabolous insects undergo complete metamorphosis, characterized by distinct larval, pupal, and adult stages.
Q28. Which of the following transmits parasites for river blindness?
Answer: Black flies (*Simulium* species)
Explanation: River blindness (onchocerciasis) is transmitted by the bite of infected black flies, which are vectors for Onchocerca volvulus .
Q29. Which insecticide targets GABA in its action?
Answer: Fipronil
Explanation: Fipronil is a phenylpyrazole insecticide that blocks GABA-gated chloride channels, leading to hyperexcitation and death of insects.
Q30. Presence of triatomine bugs could predispose the population to?
Answer: Chagas disease
Explanation: Triatomine bugs (kissing bugs) are vectors for Trypanosoma cruzi , the parasite that causes Chagas disease.
Q31. People living in forested areas like Arabuko Sokoke are at a risk of?
Answer: Visceral leishmaniasis
Explanation: Forested areas are often habitats for sandflies, which are vectors for leishmaniasis, including visceral leishmaniasis.
Q32. Which of the following insects are commonly found in Latin America?
Answer: Triatomine bugs
Explanation: Triatomine bugs, vectors of Chagas disease, are endemic to Central and South America.
Q33. Pruritus can be best diagnosed for?
Answer: Scabies
Explanation: Scabies is a skin infestation caused by mites, characterized by intense itching (pruritus), especially at night.
Q34. If you found lice eggs (nits) in someone's clothing, what species would they most likely be from?
Answer: Body louse (*Pediculus humanus humanus*)
Explanation: While head lice attach to hair shafts, body lice commonly lay eggs on clothing and in seams due to their more frequent detachment from the host.